Bhatia’s Dentogist | MCQs in Oral Surgery: ORTHOGNATHIC & RECONSTRUCTIVE SURGERY

Test your knowledge on diagnosis, treatment planning, and surgical techniques for jaw deformities and defects

Bhatia’s Dentogist | MCQs in Oral Surgery
ORTHOGNATHIC & RECONSTRUCTIVE SURGERY

Part 6: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery

Bhatia’s Dentogist: MCQs in Dentistry
Part 6 : Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery (ORTHOGNATHIC & RECONSTRUCTIVE SURGERY)

During the removal of a torus palatinus it was noticed that a portion of palatal bone is fractured. One would expect :
A. An opening into the nasal cavity
B. An opening into the maxillary antrum
C. Vertical fracture of maxilla
D. Horizontal fracture of maxilla
Acrylic splints are desirable during post-operative phase of management in which of following procedures:
A. Mandibular alveoloplasty
B. Torus palatinus reduction
C. Mental tubercle reduction
D. Excision of labial epulis fissuratum
A Female patient requiring mandibular advancement by 8.0 mm. What is the procedure of choice?
A. Sagittal split osteotomy with mandibular advancement.
B. Oblique sub condylar osteotomy
C. Extraoral Vertical Ramus Osteotomy
D. None
Rate of Distraction, in a case of Distraction Osteosynthesis?
A. 0.5 mm/day
B. 1.0 mm/day
C. 1.5 mm/day
D. 2.0 mm/day
During Exodontia the force applied firstly in which direction?
A. Apical
B. Buccal
C. Lingual
D. Coronal
The Latency Period after mandibular distraction is?
A. 5 Days
B. 15 days
C. 1 months
D. 2 months
Inverted-L shaped osteotomy, what is true?
A. Used for treating mandibular retrognathism.
B. Done on the mandible portion not involving the occlusion.
C. Used in mandibular prognathism cases.
D. To correct maxillary deformities.
Latency Period in Distraction Osteosynthesis is defined as?
A. Time period between surgical osteotomy & starting of distraction.
B. Time period between starting of distraction to the completion of distraction
C. Time period for completion of distraction process.
D. Time period between distraction and functional loading of the area.
Intra Oral Vertical Ramus Osteotomy is done for? (PGI June 2006)
A. Anterior open Bite
B. Mandibular Advancement
C. Mandibular Setback
D. Maxillary Deformity
Anterior open bite and maxillary constriction is caused by:
A. Thumb sucking
B. Nail biting
C. Bruxism
D. Lip biting
Abbe-Estlander flap is used in the reconstruction of: (AI 2005)
A. Buccal mucosa
B. Lip
C. Tongue
D. Palate
A patient with class II div I malocclusion is operated for genioplasty his anterior teeth after the operation would be:
A. In edge-to-edge bite
B. Without any change
C. Having normal overjet of 2 mm
D. Having no overbite
Jumping genioplasty is a term which connotes:
A. Movement of chin posteriorly
B. Double step genioplasty
C. Single step advancement
D. Advancement after setback of mandibular body
In a patient with class III facial profile one would think of which type of genioplasty (G)?
A. Reduction G
B. Advancement G
C. Straightening G
D. Rotational G
Sagittal split osteotomy is a procedure carried out for:
A. Mandibular deformities
B. Maxillary deformities
C. Deformities in which occlusion is not involved
D. Condylar repositioning
Sagittal split osteotomy was first advocated by:
A. Obwegesser
B. Dal pont
C. Wunderer
D. Moose
A patient reported with class III skeletal deformity the ideal choice would be:
A. Inverted L osteotomy
B. Segmental osteotomy
C. Reverse sagittal split osteotomy
D. Sagittal split osteotomy
The basic advantage of sagittal split osteotomy is/are:
A. It is carried out intraorally as well as extraorally
B. No bone grafting is required when defect is less than 8 mm
C. There are no chances of paresthesia
D. All of the above
Aperiognathia is a condition in which there is:
A. Retrogenia
B. Maxillary hypoplasia
C. Open bite deformity
D. Maxillary and mandibular prognathism only
During genioplasty there are chances of injuring:
A. Inferior alveolar nerve
B. Marginal mandibular nerve
C. Mental nerve
D. Lingual nerve
Wasmund and Wunderer procedures are:
A. Mandibular segmental osteotomies
B. Maxillary segmental osteotomies
C. Maxillary subapical osteotomy
D. Multiple subapical osteotomy procedures of maxilla and mandible respectively
In a patient in whom SNA is 82° and SNB is 96° indicates he would require:
A. Maxillary surgery with setback
B. Mandibular surgery
C. Mandibular advancement
D. Maxillary advancement
Allografts are grafts taken from:
A. Same species and individuals are genetically related
B. Different species
C. Same species but individuals are genetically not related
D. Same species and between genetically identical individuals
White grafts are:
A. Never rejected
B. Are immunologically biocompatible
C. Are rejected without evidence of vascularization
D. Behave in same manner as autogenous grafts
The best bone graft which can be utilised for reconstruction of large mandibular defect is:
A. Costochondral graft
B. Calvarial graft
C. Iliac crest graft
D. Metatarsal bone graft
Iliac crest graft should ideally be taken from:
A. Lateral aspect
B. Medial aspect
C. Posterosuperior aspect
D. Anteroinferior aspect
A patient in whom Iliac crest graft has been taken for mandibular reconstruction, should be kept nil orally postoperatively:
A. For 6 hours
B. Till bowel sounds appear
C. For 12 hours
D. Till patient is ambulatory
The graft of choice in a 30-year-old patient of ameloblastoma resection would be:
A. Free iliac crest graft
B. Free vascularised iliac crest graft
C. Medullary bone graft
D. 6th rib
Composite grafts consist of:
A. Bone only
B. Medullary bone only
C. Bone and soft tissue
D. Particulate bone mixed with resins
Alveoplasty should be carried out:
A. When multiple extractions are done in one quadrant
B. When entire arch extraction is there
C. To remove undercuts
D. all of the above
Intercortical alveoloplasty is done by:
A. Removing margins of cortical plates
B. Removing interseptal bone entirely and collapsing labial and palatal cortical plates
C. Removing septa till upper third of socket and compressing the cortical plates
D. None of the above
The principle problem with tuberosity reduction is:
A. Poor access
B. Formation of OAF
C. Infection
D. Damage to posterior superior alveolar nerve
The Kazanjian’s technique of vestibuloplasty leaves:
A. Lip surface to re-epithelialise
B. Alveolar surface to re-epithelialise
C. Depth of sulcus periosteum to re-epithelialise
D. None of the above
The Lipswitch procedure is used for:
A. Ridge augmentation
B. Sulcoplasty
C. Tuberoplasty
D. Chelioplasty
When there is high crestal attachment of muscle and tissues the indicated method of vestibuloplasty is:
A. Kazanjian’s
B. Clark’s
C. Obwegeser’s
D. Howe’s lipswitch
Incision for operation of tongue-tie should be placed:
A. Transversely on lingual frenum
B. Longitudinally along lingual frenum on both sides
C. On crest of frenum longitudinally
D. None of the above