PREPROSTHETIC & ORTHOGNATHIC SURGERY AND MISCELLANEOUS
PREPROSTHETIC & ORTHOGNATHIC SURGERY AND MISCELLANEOUS
1. Treatment of choice for a patient with a maxillary complete denture with severe bilateral tuberosity undercuts is
a) Remove both tuberosity undercuts
b) Remove the tissue on only one side if possible
c) Maintain the undercuts as they help in retention
d) Use an mucostatic impression material
2. Genioplasty procedure is used
a) To change the attachment of genioglossus muscle in pre-prosthetic procedure
b) To change the position of genial tubercles
c) To modify the position of the chin
d) To modify the attachment of anterior belly of digastric
3. Which of the following is true for a flap required for maxillary tuberosity
a) Incision is given over the alveolar crest
b) A wedge-shaped incision may be 1st tried
c) Incision extends to the bicuspid cuspid region
d) None the above
4. Bimaxillary protrusion may be surgically corrected by:
a) Mandibular body osteotomy and posterior maxillary osteotomy
b) Removal of four premolars and anterior alveolar segment repositioning
c) Step osteotomy of the mandibular body
d) Subcondylar osteotomy
5. Sagittal split osteotomy is a procedure done in the mandibular:
a) Ramus
b) Body
c) Symphysis
d) Angle
6. To obtain best long term result, which of the following procedures for augmentation genioplasty is recommended:
a) On lay bone graft
b) Injection of silastic gel
c) Insertion of silastic rubber implant
d) Pedicled horizontal sliding osteotomy
7. Myoplasty and sulcus extension procedures are helpful in:
a) Increasing retention
b) Increasing stability
c) Increasing support
d) Increasing retention and stability
8. Surgical recontouring of alveolar ridges is called as
a) Alveoloplasty
b) Alveolectomy
c) Mucoginglyectomy
d) Fiberectomy
9. Y.V plasty procedure is used for
a) Vestibuloplasty
b) Ridge augmentation
c) Frenectomy
d) Mucoginglyal surgery
10. Augmented genioplasty is done by:
a) Sliding horizontal osteotomy
b) Bone grafts
c) Silicone implants
d) None of the above
11. During the removal of a torus palatinus it was notice that a portion of palatal of bone is fractured. One would expect:
a) An opening into the nasal cavity
b) An opening into the maxillary antrum
c) Vertical fracture of maxilla
d) Horizontal fracture of maxilla
12. To allow space for the dentures, most tuberosity reduction require.
a) Only soft fibrous tissue removal
b) Large part of bone to be removed
c) No reduction, since large tuberosities are more retentive
d) Removal of bone always
13. If retromolar pad and tuberosity contact, what should be done?
a) Surgical reduction of tuberosity
b) Do not extend dentures to retromolar area
c) Denture fabrication not possible
d) Has no effect on denture
14. Skin graft vestibuloplasty prevent relapse by:
a) Forming a barrier to reattachment of muscle to periosteum
b) Promoting osteogenesis to establish a bone barrier to loss of sulcus depth
c) Causing an inhibitory effect on fibroblasts in the underlying tissue
d) None of the above
15. Acrylic splints are desirable during the postoperative phase of management in which of the following procedures?
a) Mandibular alveoloplasty
b) Torus palatinus reduction
c) Mental tubercle reduction
d) Excision of labial epulis fissuratum
16. The orthognathic surgery that is commonly carried out for correction of mandibular prognathism is
a) Sagittal split osteotomy
b) Le fort I osteotomy
c) Vertical ramus osteotomy
d) Genioplasty
17. In a patient with class III facial profile one would think of which type of genioplasty
a) Reduction genioplasty
b) Advancement genioplasty
c) Straightening genioplasty
d) Rotational genioplasty
18. If severe bony undercut exist, best treatment
a) Remove both undercut so that no undercut exists
b) Remove undercut on one side
c) Nothing but do only alveolar ridge contouring
d) None of the above
19. Main disadvantage of dry heat used for sterilization is that:
a) It is time consuming
b) Rusts the instruments
c) Dulls the sharp instruments
d) Ineffective sterilization
20. Poor accessibility is the main disadvantage of flap
a) Trapezoid
b) Envelope
c) Semilunar
d) Any of the above
21. Resorbable sutures are:
a) Polyglycogenic
b) Polyproxylex
c) Glycogenic
d) Polyethylene
22. Which of the following are not non absorbable sutures :
a) Silk
b) Catgut
c) Metal
d) Nylon
23. Which of the following is most commonly used to disinfect dental units and hand pieces
a) Clorox
b) Glutaraldehyde
c) Betadine
d) Ethyl alcohol
24. What is the fastest, safest and most effective to sterilize a metal impression tray with a solder that melts at a temperature above 175°C?
a) Filtration
b) Autoclaving
c) Dry heat sterilization
d) Soaking in 2% glutaraldehyde
25. Cidex is:
a) Glutaraldehyde
b) Alcohol
c) A phenolic compound
d) A caustic agent
26. Cryosurgery utilizes which of the following?
a) Nitrous oxide
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Liquid oxygen
d) Nitric dioxide
(AIPG -95)
27. The scalpel blade most commonly used for oral surgical procedures is:
a) No: 22
b) No: 12
c) No: 11
d) No: 15
28. Polyglycolic acid suture material (“vfcryl”) is an:
a) Absorbable natural suture
b) Absorbable synthetic suture
c) Non-absorbable natural suture
d) Non absorbable synthetic suture
29. Very commonly used suture material in oral surgical procedures
a) Chromic gut
b) Polygalactin
c) Cotton
d) Black silk
30. Ethyl alcohol is effective (against spores)
a) 70%
b) 60%
c) 50%
d) 100%
31. A patient is on periodic renal dialysis. Minor oral surgery should be performed
a) One day before dialysis
b) On the of dialysis
c) One day after dialysis
d) One week after dialysis
32. The blood product of choice for treatment of hemophilics is
a) Fresh blood
b) Cryoprecipitate
c) Fresh frozen plasma
d) Plasma
33. During cryosurgery
a) Cells get evaporated
b) Cells will not die, only freeze
c) Cell death occurs when the temperature falls below ~20°C
d) Patients need general anesthesia
34. “Visor osteotomy is a”:
a) an orthognathic surgical procedure
b) a cancer resection procedure
c) a fracture reduction and fixation procedure
d) a preposthetic procedure
35. The principal problem with tuberosity reduction is:
a) Poor access
b) Formation of oro-antral fistula
c) Infection
d) Damage to posterior superior alveolar nerve
36. Apicectomy is:
a) Periapical curettage
b) Retrograde restoration
c) Surgical removal of root
d) Surgical removal of root tip of an endodontically treated tooth
37. Vertical section of ramus of mandible is done in which condition:
a) Mandibular protrusion
b) Mandibular retrusion
c) Maxillary prognathism
d) Maxillary retrognathism
38. Intra oral vertical ramus osteotomy is done for:
a) Anterior open bite
b) Mandibular advancement
c) Mandibular set back
d) Maxillary deformity
(PGI-06)
39. Time taken for osseeintegration of implants in the maxilla is:
a) 4 months
b) 2 months
c) 6 months
d) 8 months
40. A dermatome is used:
a) To remove scar tissue
b) To harvest skin grafts
c) To abrade skin which is pigmented
d) For pairing of lacerated soft tissue
41. Orthognathic decompensation is done:
a) Is done at the time of surgery
b) Is done before the surgery
c) Is done after the surgery
d) Nature itself decompensate or dental compensation
42. Which of the following is used in the management of haemophilic patient?
a) Transemic acid
b) Acetic acid
c) Ascorbic acid
d) Palmitonic acid
43. In Haemorrhagic shock, hypotension occurs when blood loss is more than:
a) 10% ~ 15%
b) 15% ~ 30%
c) 30% ~ 40%
d) More than 40%
44. Antiseptic technique in surgery was first introduced by:
a) Joseph Lister
b) Louis Pasteur
c) Robert Koch
d) Antony Van Leeuwenhoek
45. Gut suturing material is absorbed by:
a) Oxidation
b) Hydrolysis
c) Fibrinolysis
d) Proteolysis
46. Abbey-Estlander flap is used in the reconstruction of:
a) Buccal mucosa
b) Lip
c) Tongue
d) Palate
47. What is the most common skeletal finding in cephalometric radiographs in a patient with a history of cleft palate and anterior crossibte:
a) Maxillary retrusion
b) Mandibular protrusion
c) Mandibular retrusion
d) Maxillary protrusion
48. In children below age of 8 years, high level of cranio-facial disjunction of Lefort III classification is rarely seen because:
a) Children in that age group really get affected by such traumatic incidence
b) Facial skeleton is covered with thick soft tissue
c) There is lack of poorly developed ethmoidal & sphenoidal sinus
d) The line of demarcation between medullary & cortical bone is less evident.
49. Prophylactic antibiotic in surgical practice:
a) Is given orally
b) depends on individual preference
c) continued for a minimum of 7 days
d) first dose is given before induction of anesthesia
50. Subcondylar osteotomy for correction of prognothism was first reported by:
a) Robinson and Hinds
b) Huston O Kruger
c) Krug H. Thoma
d) Obwegeser
51. A specimen for a biopsy should be taken from:
a) Necrotic area
b) Subdermal layer
c) Border of an ulcerated area
d) Center of an ulcerated area
52. The proper rate of rescue breathing in an adult is:
a) 4 times per min.
b) 12 times per min.
c) 20 times per min.
d) 28 times per min.
53. Which of the following is NOT an objective of preprosthetic surgical preparation ?
a) Conditioning of patient musculature
b) Correcting conditions that preclude optimal prosthetic function
c) Enlargement of denture bearing areas
d) Provision for placing tooth root analogues by means of osseointegrated dental implants
54. The thickness of split thickness skin graft used in maxillofacial surgery ranges from
a) 2 to 3 mm
b) 1 to 2 mm
c) 0.3 to 0.5 mm
d) 1.3 to 1.5 mm
55. I.V. diazepam causes following in a patient on dental chair:
a) Tinet’s sign
b) Virrel’s sign
c) Battel’s sign
d) Bell’s sign
56. Non absorbable suture material is
a) Catgut
b) Fascia lata
c) Polyglycolic
d) Nylon
57. Which of the following Osteotomy is carried out for mandibular deformity
a) Inverted ‘L’ Osteotomy
b) ‘C’ Osteotomy
c) Intraoral sagittal split Osteotomy
d) All of the above
58. In Jorgensen technique on IV sedation for dental procedure drugs used are
a) Pentobarbital
b) Mepiridine
c) Scopalamine
d) All the above
59. The concept of One Stage Full Mouth Disinfection has been put forth to prevent
a) Adhesion of microorganisms
b) Proliferation of microorganisms
c) Translocation of microorganisms
d) Bacterial invasion
60. During extraction of tooth to known cardiac patient experienced angina this was most likely to be precipitated by
a) Allergy to LA
b) Stimulus of pain and anticipation
c) Adrenaline in drug
d) Upright position of chair
61. Catgut suture is packed in
a) Isopropyl alcohol
b) Ethanol
c) Formalin
d) Glutenaldehyde
62. Saggital split osteotomy was first advocated by
a) Obwegesser
b) Dalpont
c) Wunder
d) Moose
63. All of the following statement about ketorolac are incorrect EXCEPT.
a) An effective analgesic for mild to moderate post operative dental pain.
b) Like morphine it interacts with opioid receptors.
c) Administered only by intravenous route.
d) Safe even in chronic use.
64. One of the following is considered as best imaging modality for detecting sequestra in osteomyelitis
a) Radionuclide imaging
b) Tomography
c) MRI
d) Computed tomography
65. What is the advantage of chronic gut over plain gut suture in deep wounds?
a) Greater strength
b) Greater ease of use
c) Delayed resorption
d) Less tissue irritation
66. Inhaled general anaesthetic with low blood gas partial coefficient are characterized by
a) Rapid induction and quick recovery from anaesthesia
b) Rapid induction and slow recovery from anaesthesia
c) Slow induction and slow recovery from anaesthesia
d) Slow induction and quick recovery from anaesthesia
67. Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnoses of?
a) Anemia
b) Eosinophilia
c) Spherocytoses
d) Thrombocytopenic purpura
68. Best graft for alveolar cleft surgery (Or)
Patient with cleft palate graft taken from
a) Posterior iliac crest
b) Anterior iliac crest
c) Clavicle
d) Rib
69. Primary anatomic structure of concern in posterior mandible periradicular surgery
a) Neurovascular bundle coursing through infraorbital canal.
b) Neurovascular bundle near incisive foramen.
c) Neurovascular bundle near palatine foramen.
d) Neurovascular bundle coursing through mandibular canal.
70. On radiograph of upper lateral incisor a periapical lesion is found after 2 years following RCT curetage was done and histopathology showed presence of apical cyst. Lesion continued to enlarge even after surgery. What is the reason for this.
a) Leaking from main canal
b) Unobturated accessory canal
c) Apex was not resected
d) Actinomycoses infection
71. Treatment of malignant hyperthermia is
a) Propranolol
b) Halothane
c) Dantrolene
d) Nitrous oxide
72. Miniplate fixation is effective at
a) Zone of tension
b) Near the roots of teeth
c) Zone of compression
d) Near to the mental foramen
73. In a patient with cleft palate alveolar bone grafting should be done
a) After expansion of maxilla and correction of cross bite, but before cuspid eruption
b) Before expansion of maxilla and correction of cross bite but after canine eruption
c) Before expansion of maxilla and correction of cross bite and after canine eruption.
d) After expansion of maxilla and correction of cross bite and after canine eruption.
74. Radiograph of mandibular 3rd molar shows fading of trabeculations and narrowing of canal in apical region of tooth. What will be the diagnosis?
a) Deep grooving of the root and loss of dense cortical walls of the canal
b) Nerve is passing in between the roots.
c) Horizontal superimposition of radiograph
d) Inherent faulty radiographic technique
75. In a patient with 15% blood loss, the immediate management is?
a) Immediate blood replacement
b) Blood transfusion is not required
c) Aggressive replacement of crystalloid only
d) Aggressive replacement of crystalloid and blood
76. In mass causality cases, the mechanism to sort out patient is?
a) Treating first patients with life threatening conditions
b) Treating patients with higher chances of survival with least available infrastructure
c) Treating patients with multiple organ failure & that need equipment and mobility
d) None
77. Delayed prolonged bleeding after a minor surgery is caused by defect in
a) Primary hemostasis.
b) Secondary hemostasis.
c) Defect in capillary bed to support the clot.
d) Defect in connective tissue to support capillaries.
78. Latency period in distraction osteosynthesis is defined as
a) Time period between surgical osteotomy and starting of distraction
b) Time period between starting of distraction to the completion of distraction
c) Time period for completion of distraction process
d) Time period between distraction and functional loading of the area
79. In a patient of syncope the pupils are
a) Constricted
b) Constricted and non-reacting to light
c) Dilated-fixed and non-reacting to light
d) Dilated and fixed
80. Which of the following drugs are used in the management of haemophilia?
a) Tranexamic acid
b) Heparin
c) Calcium gluconate
d) Thrombin
81. Test of primary hemostasis-
a) Coagulation time
b) Bleeding time
c) Prothrombin time
d) Platelet count
82. Profine is a
a) Natural absorbable suture material
b) Synthetic absorbable suture material.
c) Natural non absorbable suture material.
d) Synthetic non absorbable suture material
83. A patient who is on a regimen of steroid therapy and has need for extraction of chronically infected teeth requires premedication with
a) Atropine to reduce the hazard of vagal stimulation and cardiac arrest.
b) Antihypertensive to combat tendency towards shock
c) Antihistamines to prevent allergic reaction
d) Antibiotics
84. Head shaking test is done to diagnose
a) Maxillary sinusitis
b) Vertigo
c) Position of root in relation to maxillary antrum
d) Maxillary fracture
85. The contribution of operation of sodium potassium electrogenic pump for the development of net -90 millivolt on resting membrane potential is
a) -4 millivolt
b) -80 millivolt
c) -70 millivolt
d) +4 millivolt
86. Most stable orthognathic procedure for anterior open bite correction is
a) Sagittal split osteotomy
b) Lefort I osteotomy
c) Inverted L osteotomy
d) Intraoral vertical subsignoidal osteotomy
87. Campbell line is seen in X-ray of following projection
a) Transcranial
b) Transorbital
c) Transpharyngeal
d) Occipitomental
88. A 12 yr old child is HIV positive & comes in a dental clinic with severe pain due to abscess in the oral cavity and needs tooth extraction. What should be done?
a) Take the CD4 count & consult the physician
b) Send the child for ELISA & consult the physician
c) Send the child to get the sputum test done
d) Do nothing
89. The latent period in distraction osteogenesis is
a) 4-6 weeks
b) 5-7 days
c) 6-8 months
d) 4 months
90. A 30 year old patient underwent resection of mandible for the treatment of ameloblastoma. The best graft is
a) Free lilac crest graft.
b) Free vascularized lilac crest graft.
c) 6th rib.
d) Allograft of the bone.
91. Ecchymosis and hematoma are treated with
a) Intermittent ice pack
b) Continuous ice pack
c) Intermittent hot pack
d) Pressure and pack
92. ORF stands for
a) Open reading frame
b) Oncocytic removing fraction
c) Oncogenic removing frequency
d) Oil fraction in blood
93. Submandibular salivary duct calcification treatment includes
a) Longitudinal incision and suturing the duct.
b) Longitudinal incision and suturing the wound leaving the duct open.
c) Transverse incision and suturing the duct
d) Transverse incision and suturing the wound leaving the duct open.
94. Z-platy is performed in cases of
a) High frenal attachment
b) Shallow sulcus
c) Deep sulcus
d) Low frenal attachment
95. The site from which biopsy should not be taken is
a) When the lesion subsides on local treatment.
b) Area with large, spontaneous enlargement.
c) A pigmented lesion.
d) A white plaque like lesion.
96. A major indication for orthognathic surgery before puberty is
a) Transverse deficiency of maxilla
b) Ankylosis of mandible
c) Prognathic mandible
d) Hyperdivergent facial pattern with anterior open bite
97. In case of nodal metastasis, which is not seen on CT scan
a) Spiculated node
b) Size more than 6 mm
c) Necrotic node
d) Rounded node
98. An itching wound suggests a
a) Hypersensitivity reaction
b) Infection
c) Contraction
d) Separation
99. Posterior mandible resorbs at a rate approximately times faster than the anterior mandible
a) 2 times
b) 4 times
c) 6 times
d) 8 times
100. The earliest operative procedure undertaken in the management of a complete unilateral cleft lip with alveolus and palate is
a) Palatorrhaphy
b) Chellorrhaphy
c) Alveolar cleft grafts
d) Correction of maxillomandibulardisharmonies
101. The most important reason for placing an alveolar graft in cleft palate patient is
a) Improve pronunciation
b) Improve breathing efficiency
c) Make eruptive pathway for permanent canine
d) Improve feeding efficiency
102. Which statement with respect to mucoceles is false?
a) Pseudocysts contain viscous saliva but lack a true epithelial lining
b) Patients relate a history of filling, rupture and refilling
c) Preventing recurrence requires removal of associated major salivary gland
d) Preventing recurrence requires removal of associated minor salivary gland
103. Position that is least likely possible by means of bilateral sagittal split osteotomy is
a) Advancement
b) Set back
c) Rotation
d) Transverse
104. The ‘Search lines’ to detect fracture line on occipitomental radiographic view of midfacial skeleton fracture was described by
a) Rene Lefort and Guerin
b) McGrigor and Campbell
c) Andreason and Ravn
d) Rowe and Williams
105. A surgical obturator has to be inserted
a) One day prior to the surgery
b) On the day of the surgery
c) 14 days after the surgery
d) 30 days after the surgery
106. A patient has day care surgery, what we will advise for:
a) Drive by himself
b) Can operate machinery or drive
c) Don’t operate any machinery or drive for that day
d) Can take alcohol at night
107. TimeI’s sign is meant for:
a) Nerve regeneration
b) Problem in the ear
c) Nerve degeneration
d) None of the above
108. A 2 years old child presents with cleft of the hard and soft palate which extends till the incisive foramen. According to Veau’s classification this case comes under
a) Group I
b) Group II
c) Group III
d) Group IV
109. Cranial nerves at risk during removal of the submandibular salivary gland
a) Mandibular branch of the facial nerve
b) Lingual nerve
c) Hypoglossal nerve
d) All of the above
110. A dye injected in to space to see the joint is known as:
a) Arthrography
b) Arthroscopy
c) Arthroplasty
d) Orthopantogram
111. Facial nerve lies:
a) Below SMAS & above parotidomasseteric fascia
b) Above SMAS & below parotidomasseteric fascia
c) Above SMAS & above parotidomasseteric fascia
d) Below SMAS & below parotidomasseteric fascia
112. Excessive bleeding during oral surgery can be decreased in which position?
a) Head up
b) Head down
c) Prone
d) Supine
113. There is <2 cms painful swelling responsive to salicylates, this is?
a) Osteoma
b) Osteochondroma
c) Osteoid osteoma
d) Osteoblastoma
114. A 40 years old patient has to undergo a surgery for removal of the tongue. Ligation of which part of the lingual artery would be preferred during the surgery?
a) First part
b) Second part
c) Third part
d) Sublingual part
115. Surgical ciliated cyst is often associated with surgeries of the
a) Maxillary impaction
b) Mandibular set back
c) Caldwell luc procedure
d) mucocele
116. Clinical features of submucous cleft deformity
a) Bifid uvula
b) Notching of the posterior edge of the hard palate
c) Midline translucency of the soft palate
d) All of the above
117. According to Food and Drug administration lactation categories 5* Refers to
a) Safe for nursing infant, medication usually compatible with breast feeding
b) Safety in nursing infants unknown; inadequate literature available
c) Potential for significant effects on nursing infants medication should be given with caution
d) Not safe for nursing infants; medication contraindicated or requires cessation of breast feeding
118. Excessive pressure at the angle of mandible during establishment of patient airway may damage?
a) 7th cranial nerve
b) 5th cranial nerve
c) 4th cranial nerve
d) 3rd cranial nerve
119. If impacted 3rd molar is to be extracted in patient planed for bilateral sagittal split osteotomy then extraction should be done
a) 8-12 weeks after surgery
b) At the time of surgery
c) 1 month after surgery
d) 6 month before surgery
120. Optimum rate of movement during distraction osteogenesis is
a) 1 mm per day
b) 5 mm per day
c) 1 cm per week
d) 5 cms per week
121. Objectives of pre-prosthetic surgical prescriptions include all, except
a) Epulis fissuratum
b) Unfavourably located frenular attachments
c) Vestibuloplasty
d) None of the above
122. Pre-operative investigation recommended before surgical procedures in a patient on warfarin therapy is
a) Partial thromboplastin time
b) Clotting time
c) International Normalized Ratio
d) Differential count
123. Regarding oropharyngeal throat pack all are true except?
a) It is given in awake patient
b) Should be given after general anesthesia
c) Prevent ingress of oropharyngeal secretions to trachea
d) Prevent soiling of trachea
124. According to Cawood and Howell, a depression with cup shaped surface of edentulous atrophic maxilla is classified as:
a) Class III
b) Class IV
c) Class V
d) Class VI
125. For remodelling of the palatal vault as it is being translated, the bone is removed
a) Small area around the central incisors
b) From the roof of the nose and added to the floor of the mouth
c) From the posterior surface
d) From the floor of the nose and added to the roof of the mouth
126. Not a symptom of traumatic orbital syndrome?
a) Ptosis
b) Ophthalmoplegia
c) Parasithesia
d) Blindness