DENTAL CARIES AND ANOMALIES, ENDO, SURGICAL, AND PROSTHODONTIC THERAPY _ PEDODONTIC MCQs
1. Retention in a stainless steel crown is achieved primarily by:
A. Chamfer
B. Cement
C. Parallel distal and mesial walls
D. Crimping
2. The term “atraumatic restorative treatment (ART)” was introduced by:
A. McClean
B. McDonald
C. McKay
D. Mclevan
3. One hour after injury of a 9-year-old child who came with class 3 fracture and small pulp exposure, mode of treatment is (an hour-old Ellis class 3 injury to 21 in a 9-year-old boy is treated with):
A. Pulpotomy
B. Pulpectomy
C. Apexification
D. Pulp capping
4. The commonly used filling material in deciduous teeth for RCT
A. Gutta-percha
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Zinc oxide eugenol
D. Amalgam
5. A definite method to determine the vitality of primary tooth after trauma is:
A. Electric pulp testing
B. Transillumination
C. Temperature pulp testing
D. None of the above
6. Which of the following is not a space maintainer?
A. Distal shoe
B. Lingual holding arch
C. Transpalatal arch
D. E-arch
7. Which of the following is false about apexogenesis?
A. Done in a nonvital tooth
B. More physiologic process
C. Pulp tissue with mild inflammation
D. Root development continues
8. “Chicken-wire” appearance of enlarged bone marrow spaces is seen in:
A. Fetal alcohol syndrome
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Hemophilia A
D. Beta thalassemia major
9. Cvek pulpotomy refers to:
A. Partial pulpotomy
B. Cervical pulpotomy
C. Glutaraldehyde pulpotomy
D. Formocresol pulpotomy
10. Primary alveolar grafting done in:
A. 6 months–1 year
B. <2 years
C. 2–4 years
D. 4–15 years
11. With all the factors present in the mouth, caries progression is:
A. Slow
B. Intermittent
C. Continuous
D. Rapid
12. A patient comes with history of trauma to anterior teeth. There is metallic sound on percussion of the affected tooth. The diagnosis based on clinical examination is:
A. Lateral luxation
B. Subluxation
C. Concussion
D. Extrusive luxation
13. Which of the following is not a consideration while selecting stainless steel crown for deciduous teeth?
A. Occlusal morphology
B. MD width
C. Occlusogingival height
D. Minimal resistance fit
14. All are true for Bruxism, except:
A. It is forceful grinding of teeth
B. Child is aware of it
C. Flattened molars and lingual wear of max anteriors
D. Also known as night grinding
15. N2O/O2 sedation can be effectively used in all, except:
A. Mild-to-moderately anxious patient
B. Patients not having medical contraindications
C. Patients with gag reflex
D. Patients with severe emotional disturbance
16. The term “canker” sore refers to:
A. Herpes ulcers
B. Vincent infection
C. Recurrent aphthous ulcer
D. Candida patch
17. The first sign of root resorption seen in deciduous central incisor and first primary molar is by the age of:
A. 2–3 years
B. 1–2 years
C. 4–5 years
D. 6 years
18. In a mouth breather, tonicity of upper lip:
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remain same
D. There is no relation between them
19. In glutaraldehyde pulpotomy procedure, cotton pellet is kept on pulp stumps for:
A. 2 minutes
B. 30 seconds
C. 4 minutes
D. 5 seconds
20. Fluoride absorption takes place through
A. Stomach and small intestine
B. Large intestine
C. Duodenum
D. Small intestine
21. Dental fluorosis takes place when
A. >1 mg/l
B. >1.5 mg/l
C. >2.5 mg/l
D. >3 mg/l
22. The most susceptible area of caries in primary teeth is:
A. Mesial surface of 2nd primary molar
B. Distal surface of 1st primary molar
C. Distal surface of 2nd primary molar
D. Mesial surface of 1st primary molar
23. Full mouth radiographic survey for a child 6–12 years, recommended number of radiographs is:
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 18
24. Fissure eradication in tooth was advocated by:
A. Hyatt
B. Bunocore
C. Bodecker
D. Bowen
25. BIS GMA was advocated by:
A. Bowen
B. Hyatt
C. Newman
D. Dean
26. SnF was advocated by:
A. Knutson
B. Bibby
C. Muhler
D. Dean
27. Yellowish discolorations due to trauma to primary teeth indicates:
A. Degeneration of pulp
B. Calcific reaction of pulp
C. Necrotic pulp
D. Infected pulp
28. Mechanical retention of sealants is the direct result of resin penetration into the porous etched enamel forming tags of:
A. 8 microns
B. 40 microns
C. 1,000 microns
D. 30 microns
29. In a 9-year-old child, permanent tooth surface with highest prevalence of caries is:
A. Labial surface of the canines
B. Mesial surface of the central incisors
C. Occlusal surface of the first molars
D. Lingual surface of the lateral incisors
30. A more accurate method of determining delayed or accelerated eruption of permanent teeth is by:
A. Arch length analysis
B. Measuring mesial–distal width and cervico-occlusal height of primary teeth
C. Measuring amount of root development and alveolar bone overlying the unerupted permanent tooth.
D. Chronologic age of the patient
31. An avulsed immature tooth with open apex with extra oral dry time less than 60 minutes should be:
A. Replanted after the root is rinsed off debris with water or saline
B. Replanted after soaking the tooth in doxycycline for 5 minutes
C. Discarded because the success is poor after replantation
D. Replanted after root canal treatment and apical scaling
32. Which among the following is referred to as “Fluoride Bombs”?
A. Nursing caries
B. Rampant caries
C. Occult caries
D. Radiation caries
33. Prophylactic odontotomy was proposed by:
A. Bunocore
B. Hyatt
C. Newbrun
D. Bowen
34. Which of the pulp vitality tests measures velocity of red blood cells in capillaries?
A. Odontometer
B. Dual wavelength spectrometer
C. Hughes Probeye camera
D. Laser Doppler flowmetry
35. Simian crease is a characteristic feature of child with:
A. Cerebral palsy
B. Down’s syndrome
C. Mental retardation
D. Epilepsy
36. Before the application of pit and fissure sealants to primary teeth, the enamel etched with a 30–50% phosphoric acid for:
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 90 seconds
D. 120 seconds
37. “Nursing bottle caries” is an example for:
A. Caries of the primary molar teeth
B. Rampant caries
C. Interproximal caries
D. Caries affecting only the primary incisors
38. Calcium hydroxide is supplied in:
A. Catalyst paste
B. Base paste
C. Both A and B
D. Gel form
39. The first step in the traditional preparation of a class II cavity in a primary tooth involves:
A. Placing the mesio-occlusal depth cut
B. Placing the disto-occlusal depth cut
C. Opening the marginal ridge area
D. Removing any unsupported enamel
40. The incidence of dental caries in individuals with cerebral palsy, compared to the general population is:
A. Controversial
B. No difference
C. Always decreased
D. Always increased
41. The maximum allowable dosage of 2% lidocaine for a 20-pound child is:
A. 4 mg/lb body weight
B. 3 mg/lb body weight
C. 2 mg/lb body weight
D. 1 mg/lb body weight
42. The last sensation to be lost following local anesthesia administration is:
A. Pain
B. Touch
C. Temperature sense
D. Deep pressure
43. Which is the best medium to transport an avulsed tooth, which is not to be reimplanted immediately?
A. Milk
B. Coconut water
C. HBSS
D. Viaspan
44. Syncope in a child during dental treatment:
A. Situational syncope
B. Cerebral syncope
C. Cardioneural syncope
D. Chronic fatigue syncope
45. One of the following is a reliable means of quantifying the extent of mouth breathing:
A. Cephalometry
B. Butterfly or cotton test
C. Water holding test
D. Rhinomanometry
46. A simple method of motivating a child patient to control dental caries is:
A. Snyder’s test
B. Enamel solubility test
C. The use of a disclosing agent
D. Using the phase contrast microscope to examine plaque
47. Which of the following type of matrices is frequently used on pediatric patients?
A. Tofflemire
B. Graimferential
C. Custom-F band
D. Ivory
48. After how many days following concussion should the tooth be checked again for pulpal vitality tests?
A. 24 hours
B. 10–12 days
C. 1 month
D. 3–6 months
49. The major consideration involved in performing pulpectomy in primary teeth is:
A. Root resorption
B. Large pulp chamber
C. Tortuous course of the pulp canal
D. All of the above
50. Best material for pulp capping is:
A. Calcium hydroxide
B. Zinc phosphate cement
C. ZOE
D. Glass ionomer cement
51. The term “Anaesthesia by copper” was used to:
A. Indicate extraction where copper was used as LA
B. Indicate the extraction done by Dr. Copper
C. Indicate the incentive of a penny for good behavior
D. Indicated surgical instrument made of Copper
52. Rubber dam was introduced by:
A. Tomy Hanks
B. SC Barnum
C. Hedstorm
D. GC Black
53. S-ECC in a child 2, 3, or 4 years of age is characterized by:
A. Early involvement of maxillary and the mandibular canines
B. Involvement of mandibular incisors only
C. Early involvement of mandibular incisors and maxillary incisors
D. Mandibular and maxillary molars only
54. Foolproof method to know the efficiency of diet counseling is:
A. Lactobacillus test
B. Albans test
C. Vinegar test
D. None
55. The ratio of formalin to cresol in Buckley’s formaldehyde is:
A. 3:2
B. 2:3
C. 1:2
D. 2:1
56. Restoration of choice for obturation in deciduous tooth:
A. Zinc oxide eugenol
B. Reinforced zinc oxide eugenol
C. Gutta-percha
D. Silver point
57. Apexogenesis is:
A. Physiological process of root development
B. Inducing the root development
C. Arresting the root development
D. It is a type of pulpectomy procedure
58. Use of pit and fissure sealants in deciduous teeth is:
A. Never indicated
B. Limited to buccal pits
C. Indicated even though retention is limited
D. Indicated only in rampant caries
59. When a dentist suspects a case of child abuse or neglect attending his dental office, his first step should be oriented toward:
A. Referral
B. Reporting
C. Documentation
D. Treatment
60. The range of time for the crowns of primary dentition to fully erupt after piercing the gum pads is:
A. 2–20 months
B. 2 years
C. 7–30 months
D. 6–13 years
61. Cariogram is given by:
A. Avery
B. Brathall
C. Mc Donald
D. Klevin Allen
62. Partial pulpotomy technique is given by:
A. Bowen in 1974
B. Clark in 1976
C. Cvek in 1978
D. Willet in 1980
63. A 7-year-old child comes to your clinic with ulcers with indurated gingiva in the oral cavity and fever with crusting of lips. Your line of treatment:
A. No active treatment. Symptomatic relief and observation
B. Prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotic and mouth-wash
C. Prescribe corticosteroids as this is an allergic reaction
D. Clean the mouth with a gentle mouthwash
64. In a 3-year-old child patient, X-ray film is held in patient’s mouth by:
A. Dentist
B. Auxiliary personnel
C. Parents
D. Child only
65. Most common route for conscious sedation in pedodontic patients is:
A. Intravenous
B. Intradermal
C. Submucosal
D. Subdermal
66. In primary molars:
A. The cervical ridges are more pronounced specially on the buccal aspect
B. Markedly constricted neck is present compared to permanent
C. Enamel rods at the cervix slope occlusally
D. All of the above
67. Gingival stripping in children:
A. Is due to narrow attached gingiva
B. Is treated with gingivectomy
C. Is due to increase in width of attached gingiva
D. Is treated by gingivoplasty
68. After avulsion of the tooth, 60 minutes have elapsed; it is kept in doxycycline for 5 minutes for the purpose of:
A. Revascularization
B. Blocks Ca2+ channels
C. Conditioning of the cementum
D. Revitalization of periodontal ligament
69. Stainless steel crowns should extend intragingivally:
A. 0.5–1.0 mm
B. 1.0–1.5 mm
C. 1.5–2.0 mm
D. 0.0–0.5 mm
70. In Basket crown technique
A. Window is prepared on lingual aspect for aesthetics
B. Window is prepared on labial aspect for aesthetics
C. Window is prepared on occlusal aspect for aesthetics
D. Window is prepared in cervical region for aesthetics
71. Fluoride supplement for a child above 3 years, living in an area with fluoride content of 0.25 ppm is:
A. 0.25 mg
B. 0.5 mg
C. 0.75 mg
D. 1 mg
72. Radiograph of traumatized tooth is mainly necessary:
A. To assess stage of root development
B. To rule out root fractures
C. To have a baseline comparison with future radiograph
D. To rule out hyalinization of pulp
73. Most periodontal damage occurs in the following conditions
A. Intrusion
B. Extrusion
C. Infarction
D. Luxation
74. If the lactobacillus count is 9,500, the reading will be referred as:
A. Little or none
B. Slight
C. Moderate
D. Marked
75. Fluoride concentration in 0.05% mouth rinses is:
A. 250 ppm
B. 225 ppm
C. 900 ppm
D. 1,000 ppm
76. Demineralization of enamel is due to imbalance between:
A. Calcium and phosphate in saliva
B. pH in saliva and dental plaque
C. pH of dental plaque and tooth surface
D. Calcium and phosphate in dental plaque
77. Caries excavation using Carisolv:
A. Conventional preparation design
B. Clinical separation of sound and carious dentin
C. Clinical separation of primary and secondary dentin
D. Conventional rotary method of cavity preparation
78. Multiple retained deciduous teeth are seen in:
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta
B. Craniofacial dysostosis
C. Cleidocranial dysostosis
D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
79. Diagnosis of incipient carious lesion is best done by:
A. D speed film
B. C speed film
C. E speed film
D. B speed film
80. Which of the following is most commonly used for incipient caries detection?
A. D speed film
B. C speed film
C. E speed film
D. B speed film
81. The primary teeth that are most often observed to be ankylosed are:
A. Maxillary canines
B. Mandibular molars
C. Mandibular canines
D. Maxillary molars
82. Premature bone loss in primary teeth could be seen in conditions like:
A. Hypophosphatasia
B. Fibrous dysplasia
C. Papillon–Lefevre syndrome
D. All of the above
