Tumor represented T2 N2 M0 is classified as: A. Stage I B. Stage II C. Stage III D. Stage IV
Sturge Weber syndrome is characterized by all EXCEPT: A. Exophytic oral Hemangioma B. Facial hematoma C. Tramline calcification of dura on lateral cephalogram D. Facial hemangioma
Keratocanthoma is found most commonly on ? A. Lip B. Gingiva C. Tongue D. Hard palate
Clear cells are seen in: A. Chondrosarcoma B. Osteosarcoma C. Fibrosarcoma D. Ewing’s sarcoma
Neoplastic transformation in leukoplakia is seen most commonly in: A. Buccal mucosa B. Floor of mouth C. Lateral border of tongue D. Palate
Plasma cell tumour of bones with B-lymphocytic origin is: A. Plasmacytoma B. Multiple myeloma C. Burkitt’s lymphoma D. None of the above E. Both A & B
The following lesion is a doubtful premalignant lesion for oral malignancy: A. Leukoplakia B. Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis C. Erythroplakia
Definitive diagnosis of oral cancer is made by: A. Complete radiographic survey B. Biopsy C. Exfoliative cytology D. Pantograph
Diffuse erythema (pinpoint petechiae) and white patches in smoker’s palate occur due to: A. Complete obstruction to minor salivary gland orifices B. Keratinization with partially occluded minor salivary glands C. Diffuse parakeratinization of the palate D. Excessive orthokeratinization of the palate
Histochemical demonstration of glycogen in the cells can help in the diagnosis of: A. Malignant melanoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Kaposi’s sarcoma D. Ewing’s sarcoma
On biopsy report of CGCG on the basis of histologically & morphological similarities differential diagnosis is made between: A. Fibrous dysplasia B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Osteitis deformans D. Hyperthyroidism
Firbroma combined with glandular tissue is: A. Neurofibroma B. Fibroadenoma C. Fibrolipoma D. Fibromyoma
Which of the following is false about ossifying fibroma ? A. Affects people in 3-4 decade of life B. Maxilla affected more than the mandible C. Circumscribed radio opacity D. Continuous growth
Treatment for verrucous carcinoma is: A. Surgery + radiotherapy B. Excision C. Laser technique D. Alpha (a) interferon
Which of the following is not a type of leukoplakia: A. Ulcerative B. Bullous C. Speckled D. Homogenous
Benign tumor which shows metastasis: A. Warthin’s tumor B. Ameloblastoma C. Keratocanthoma D. Neurofibroma
Lateral skull view of palatal tori is used to know: A. Extent B. Pneumatization C. Bone pattern D. Location
Presence of Epstein Barr virus in hairy leukoplakia can be demonstrated using following methods EXCEPT: A. Tzanck smear B. Polymerase chain reaction C. In situ hybridization D. Electron microscopy
Hairy leukoplakia is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: A. Filiform to flat patch on lateral tongue B. Bilateral appearance C. Epstein Barr virus D. AIDS
Oral ulceration resembling Apthae are encountered in: A. Gluten enteropathy B. Chronic smokers C. Excess of B-complex D. Anti-malarial medication
Brachytherapy means: A. Chemotherapy B. Radiation administered interstially through catheters C. Lasers D. Radiation involving normal tissues
Commonest site of carcinoma of tongue: A. Posterior one third B. Ventral surface C. Tip of tongue D. Lateral margin
A patient with carcinoma cheek has tumor of 2.5 cms located close to and involving the lower alveolus. A single mobile homolateral node measuring node measuring 6 cm is palpable. Based on these clinical findings TNM stage of the tumor is: A. T1 N1 Mo B. T2 N2 Mo C. T3 N1 Mo D. T4 N2 Mo
Tumors metastatic to the jaw bones are most likely to be found in the: A. Mandibular condyle B. Posterior moral region C. Anterior maxilla D. Maxillary tuberosity
Which of the following is an oral precancer: A. Oral hairy leukoplakia B. White spongy naevus C. Leukemia D. Speckled Leukoplakia
White, spongy, folded thick mucosa is seen in: A. Oral hairy leukoplakia B. Aspirin burn C. White spongy nevus D. Pseudomembranous Candidiasis
The condition involved with an unerupted tooth or impacted tooth is: A. Dentigerous cyst B. Mural ameloblastoma C. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor D. All of the above
Ossifying fibroma manifests as: A. Unilocular radiolucency B. Unilocular radio opacity C. Multilocular radiolucency D. Multiocular radio opacity E. Both A & B
Which of the following conditions is least likely to present as an eccentric osteolytic lesion: A. Aneurysmal bone cyst B. Giant cell tumour C. Fibrous cortical defect D. Simple bone cyst
Pripheral giant cell granuloma occurs most commonly on the: A. Gingiva B. Alveolar ridge C. Palate D. Floor of the mouth
The most common bone tumor that occurs in children is: A. Osteosarcoma B. Ewing’s sarcoma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Multiple myeloma
Hamartoma is: A. Neoplastic B. Non-neoplastic C. Afflicted by trauma D. Hormonal distubance
The tissue of which lesion has been described as resembling a blood sponge with large pores: A. Cavernous hemangioma B. Capillary hemangioma C. Aneurysmal bone cyst D. Eruption hematoma
Arecanut chewing is aetiological factor in: A. Leukoedema B. Oral dubmucous fibrosis C. Erythema multiforme D. Oral lichen planus
Mobility of teeth in carcinoma of Maxillary sinus is due to involvement by tumor of: A. Anterior wall of the sinus B. Posterior wall of the sinus C. Roof of the sinus D. Floor of the sinus
In which one of the following perineural invasion in head and neck cancer is most commonly seen ? A. Adenocarcinoma B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma C. Basal cell adenoma D. Squamous cell carcinoma
All of the following malignancies metastasize except? A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Adenocarcinoma C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Melanoma
Small palpable mass elevated above the epithelial surface is? A. Papule B. Macule C. Plaque D. Vesicle
Multiple punched out lesion are seen in? A. Paget’s dissease B. Osteosarcoma C. Ewing sarcoma D. Multiple myeloma
Teratoma is best described as: A. Namartous developmental manifestation consisting of three different layers B. Occurs most commonly in stomach and lungs C. Originates from mesodermal tissue D. Associated with very painful condition
Onion Skin appearance of radiographs is seen in: A. fibrous dysplasia B. osteosarcoma C. Ewing’s sarcoma D. Chondrosarcoma
Which of the following is benign in nature: A. Lymphoma B. lymphangioma C. Melanoma D. Leukemia
On clinical examination a 60 years old female had a tumor in the right buccal mucosa. The size of the tumor was about 2 cm in diameter. There was no involvement of regional lymph nodes and also had no distant metastasis The TNM stage of the tumor is: A. T1 No Mo B. T1 NI Mo C. T1 N2 Mo D. T2 No Mo
Tobacco usage has been associated with: A. Hyperkeratosis B. Erythema C. Ulceration D. None of the above
Acanthosis is: A. Increase in mitotic division B. Increase in thickness of superficial layer C. Increase in thickness of spinous layer D. Disruption of basal lamina
Melanoma is: A. Benign tumour of skin and mucous membrane B. Malignant tumour of skin and mucous membrane C. Malignant tumour of melanophores D. Benign tumor of melanophores
Tumour that doesn’t show spontaneous regression: A. Neuroblastoma B. Retinoblastoma C. Malignant melanoma D. Octeosarcoma
Swelling and redness of the orifices of minor salivary glands of the palate occurs in: A. Nicotinic stomatitis B. Leukoplakia C. Fovea Palatine D. Erythroplakia
A patient complains of numbness of lower lip. There is no history of tooth extraction. It could be: A. Infection B. Metastatic neoplasia C. Dental Manipulation D. CNS disease
Carcinoma of the cheek: A. CHaracteristically is columner-celled: B. Has a recognized association with chewing gum C. Has a recognized association with chewing betel nut D. Has a recognized association with geographic tongue
Best results are obtained in oral submucous fibrosis is by: A. Intralesional cortisone therapy. with hyaluronic acid B. Oral cortisone with intralesional therapy (cortisone) C. Vitamin E and oral cortisone D. Intralesional placental extract
Presence of epithelial Pearls in spinous layer of epithelium is characteristic of: A. Carcinoma B. Pre-cancer C. Dysplasia D. Metaplasia
Most common route for metastasis of oral cancer is by: A. Direct textension B. Lymphatics C. Blood vessels D. Aspiration of tumor cells
Etiology of multiple neurofibromatosis is: A. Genetic B. Viral C. Injury D. Endocrine
A man who had suffered from displaced fracture of mandible complains of pain in-old fracture site near mental foramen. There is a movable tender mass on palpation in the area The best preoperative diagnosis is: A. Neuroleiomyoma B. Neurofibroma C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Traumatic neuroma
Hodgkin’s disease is considered to be: A. Follilcular reticulosis B. Inflammatory disease C. Chronic granulomatous disease D. A malignant neoplasm
White rough pedunculated lesion on palate is most likely: A. Pleomorphic adenoma B. Papilloma C. Nevus D. Fibroma
Which of the following is a reactive lesion of the gingiva that may demonstrate bone radiographically and often even microscopically: A. Osteoma B. Peripheral ossifying fibroma C. Traumatic neuroma D. Irritation fibroma
The most common bone cancer is: A. Osteosarcoma B. Metastatic bone cancer C. Multiple myeloma D. Squamous cell carcinoma
Persons with the greatest risk of oral cancer: A. Have a poor oro-dental hygiene, nutritional deficiencies and are chronic alcoholics B. Are middle aged have a poor oro-dental hygiene and regularly use tabacco C. Are old, chronic alcoholics and regularly and regularly use tobacco D. Are young, have poor oro-dental hygiene and are heavy smokers
Steriform pattern of fibrous tissue is seen in: A. Fibrosarcoma B. Malingant fibrous histiocytoma C. Nerufibroma D. Ameloblastic fibroma
A 3 cm squamous cell carcinoma of the retromolar trigone and invading the mandible and the medial pterygold muscle is at what TNM stage: A. Stage I B. Stage II C. Stage III D. Stage IV
Papillomatous tongue is observed in: A. Lymphangioma B. Hyalinia cutus et mucosa syndrome C. Fetal face syndrome D. Tuberous scterosis
Metastases from carcinoma of tongue by blood stream is more likely when the carcinoma involves the: A. anterior third B. middle third C. posterior third D. lateral margin
Features characteristic of leukoplakia include all except: A. Hyperkeratosis B. Plasma cell infiltration within the dermal papilae C. Clinically, a paint like patch D. A moist shiny lesion
Leukoplakia with the worst prognosis is seen on the: A. Dorsum of tongue B. Floor of mouth C. Buccal mucosa D. Palate
In which of the following type of tumour the HPV-6 can be detected ? A. Papilloma B. CEOT C. Sarcoma D. Pyogenic Granuloma
Which of the following epithelial changes commonly signify precancerous condition: A. Dyskeratosis B. Hyperkeratosis C. Parakeratosis D. Acanthosis
Which of the following is not a feature of torus mandibularis: A. Common in Mongoloids B. Present on the lingual surface of mandible below the mylohyoid line C. Usually Bilateral D. May or may not associated with torus palatinus
Which of the following does not have a viral etiology: A. Burkitt’s lymphoma B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma C. Hodgkin’s lymphoma D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
Kaposi’s sarcoma is a tumour of: A. Blood vessels B. Reticuloendothelial system C. Striated muscles D. Smooth muscles
Which of the following is most likely to be fatal: A. Osteochondroma B. Giant cell tumour C. Paget’s disease D. Multiple myeloma
The most common malignancy of the oral cavity is: A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Transitional cell carcinoma C. Melanoma D. Squamous cell carcinoma
Which of the following conditions is characterized by cafe-au-lait spots, non-encapsulation and potential for malignant transformation: A. Neurilemmoma B. Neurofibroma C. Traumatic Neuroma D. Solitary plasmocytoma
Which of the following is NOT true of sturge Weber syndrome: A. Hemangiomatous involvement of skin B. Mostly bilateral C. Port wine nevus D. Vascular gingival hyperplasia
Hemosiderin pricticles are seen histologically in case of: A. Fibroma B. Pregancy tumor C. Peripheral giant cell granuloma D. Papilloma
Which of the following viruses are not implicated in human malignancies: A. Epstein-Barr virus B. Herpes simplex virus type I C. HTLV 1 D. Papilloma virus
Which of the following has been implicated due to sunlight: A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Lymphoepithelioma C. Junctional nevus D. Verruca vulgaris
During oral examination of a 57-year old man a large keratotic patch that covers the entire palate is noted some Red Spots are also seen in the patch The patient most likely is a: A. Pipe smoker B. Cigar smoker C. Snuff chewer D. Tobacco chewer
Satellite lesion with locally invasive property is seen in: A. Chronic hypertrophic candidiasis B. leukoplakia C. dental ulcers D. Hemangioma
On stretching the cheek the lesion disappears in: A. Leukoplakia B. Focal hyperkeratosis C. Leukoedema D. Typhoid
Abtropfing affect is seen in: A. Junctional nevus B. Pemphigus C. Apthous ulcer D. Erythema multiformae
Bowen’s disease is: A. Benign neoplasm of the G.I.T B. Intro epithelial carcinoma C. Vesiculobullous lesion of skins D. Ulcerative lesion of G.I.T
Warty or Cauliflower like growth is: A. Papilloma B. fibroma C. Lipoma D. Torus
Bence- Jones are laboratory finding of: A. paget’s disease B. Multiple myeloma C. Malignant melanoma D. Fibrous dysplasia
Which of the following is a true cyst: A. Aneurysmal bone cyst B. Gingival cyst of the newborn C. Haemorrhagic bone cyt D. All of the above
A rhabdomyoma is a tumour origination from: A. Never tissue B. Smooth muscle C. Striated muscle D. Vascular endothelium
Which of the is the most common site for the occurrence of a basal cell carcinoma: A. Buccal mucosa B. Hard Palate C. Skin of the lower lip D. Dorsum of the tongue
An Inflammed capillary hemangioma of the oral cavity looks similar to a: A. Nevus B. Neurofibroma C. Pyogenic granuloma D. Angiosarcoma
Numbness of lip seen with no previous dental treatment: A. Meta static carcinoma B. Central nervous system lesion C. Osteomyelitis D. Infection
In which of the following conditions pulsations or murmur may be detected: A. Capillary hemangioma B. Osteogenic sarcoma C. Epidermoid carcinoma D. Osteoid osteoma
Which of the following statement is true: A. Kaposi sarcoma is a benign tumour B. Kaposi sarcoma is found in HIV positive subjects C. Kaposi sarcoma is malignant fast growing tumour D. Kaposi sarcoma is an ectodermal derivative
Hemosiderin pricticles are seen histologically in case of: A. Fibroma B. Pregancy tumor C. Peripheral giant cell granuloma D. Papilloma
Phleboliths are seen in: A. Dental pulp B. Salivary Gland duct C. Cavernous Hemangiomas D. Subepithelial Bulla
White-lesion with definite precancerous potential: A. Leukoplakia B. Discoid lupus Erythematosus C. Lichen Planus D. All of the above
Squamous papilloma is induced by: A. EBV B. HSV C. HPV D. CMV
Which of the following statements is true for MEN type: A. There is hyperplasia of parathyroid gland B. Chromophobe adenoma of pituitary gland may result in acromegaly C. Pancreatic tumours may produce gastrin, insulin glucagon, samatostain D. All of the above
Benign tumour of voluntary muscle: A. Leiomyoma B. Rhabdomyoma C. Rhabdomyosarcoma D. Leiomyosarcoma
Port wine stain in characteristic feature of: A. Peutz Jegers Syndrome B. Sturge Weber Syndrome C. Albright’s Syndrome D. Lymphangioma
The most common benign tumor occurring in oral cavity is: A. Papilloma B. Fibroma C. Adenoma D. Epulis
Kaposi’s sarcoma is more commonly seen in patient with: A. AIDS B. Amyloidosis C. Leukemia\ D. HSV infection
Antoni type A and type B are seen in: A. Neurofibroma B. Neurilemmoma C. Neurofibrosarcoma D. Traumatic neuroma
Among pre-malignant oral lesions: A. Leukoplakia should be proved by biopsy B. Leukoplakia does not disappear even after cessation of smoking C. Erythroplakia has a higher risk for malignancy than leukoplakia D. Oral submucous fibrosis is seen in all parts of the world
A lesion composed of microscopic vessels is called as: A. Haemangioma B. Angioma C. None of Haemangioma and Angioma D. Heamangioma and Angioma
Which of the following is the diagnostic characteristic of peripheral giant cell granuloma? A. Mass of granulation tissue B. Multinuclear giant cells C. Keliod like enlargement D. Epithelium is atrophic in some areas
In TNM classification T3 stands for tumour size: A. >2 cm B. >4 cm C. 4 cm with invasion of adjacent structure
What could be the most appropriate provisional diagnosis for multiple nodular exophytic reddish lesions of oral mucosa in an AIDS patient ? A. Hemangioma B. Focal epithelial hyperplasia C. Acute pseudo-membranous candidiasis D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
Leiomyoma is a tumor of: A. Cerebral tissue B. smooth muscle C. striated muscle D. cardiac muscle
Which of the following is a pseudo cyst: A. Mucous retention cyst B. Radicular cyst C. Aneurysmal bone cyst D. Dentigetous cyst
Metastatic disease to the oral region is most likely to occur in which of these locations: A. Tongue B. Posterior maxilla C. Posterior mandible D. Floor of the mouth
An epithelial lining is typically found in all of the following except: A. Sinuses B. Fistulae C. Aneurismal bone cysts D. Keratocytes
Cancer which most commonly metastasizes to jaw bone is: A. Breast B. Prostatic C. Lung D. Kidney
Osteosarcoma of the jaw: A. Occurs mostly in the maxilla B. Seen in old age C. Highly malignant tumour which shows early metastasis D. Shows a soap bubble type of radiolucency in radiographs
The most common malignant tumor of the gingiva is: A. Malignant B. Sarcoma C. Fibro-sarcoma D. squamous cell carcinoma
The most common site of metastasis from the mandibular sarcoma is: A. Lung B. Liver C. Spleen D. Heart
All of the following are precancerous conditions except: A. SLE B. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome C. Plummer-vinson syndrome D. Xeroderma pigmentosum
Oral submucous fibrosis is diagnosed by: A. Juxta, epithelial fibrosis (changes) B. Changes in epithelium C. Changes in submucosa D. All of the above
Presence of Verocay bodies and having predeliction for occurrence in the tongue are seen in: A. Granular cell myoblastoma B. Neurilemmoma C. Neurofibroma D. Metaplasia
Which of the following is most malignant? A. Neurolemmoma B. Neurofibroma C. Neurogenic fibroma D. Traumatic neuroma
Which on of the following is a connective tissue tumour? A. Lipoma B. Melanoma C. Carcinoma D. Papilloma
Which of the following is carcinoma of the skin spreads by local invasion and has no tendency to metastasise? A. Malignant melanoma B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Fibrosarcoma D. Leukoplakia
Ressell’s bodies are found in: A. Activated macrophages B. Histiocytes C. Plasma cells D. Erythrocytes
Sunlight is one of the etiological causes of: A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Malignant melanoma C. Basal cell arinoma D. Port-wine stain
Which among the following shows pesudo-epitheliometous hyperplasia: A. sq. cell carcinoma B. Basal cell arcinoma C. Verrucous carcinoma D. Granular cell myoblastoma
Increased incidence of carcinoma is observed with: A. Homogenous leukoplakia B. Verrucous leukoplakia C. Nodular leukoplakia D. Ameloblastic fibroma
Asymmetric widening of the periodontal ligament around two or more teeth is seen in: A. metastatic breast carcinoma B. osteosarcoma C. paget’s disease D. Fibrous dysplasia
Commonly involved lymph nodes during metastasis from carcinomas of oral cavity is: A. Jugulo omohyoid and jugulo digastric B. sub mandibular and servical lymph nodes C. submental and submandibular lymphnodes D. None of the above
Most common site of oral leukoplakia is: A. angle of mouth B. cheek mucosa C. Soft palate D. Gingiva
A patient is diagnosed of oral cancer or stage T,N,M: A. Surgery B. Surgery +radiotherapy C. Chemotherapy alone D. Surgery+ chemotherapy
Osteosarcoma presents a radiographic picture resembling: A. Sun-brust appearance B. Cotton-wool appearance C. Soap-bubble appearance D. Ground-glass appearance
A 20yr old patient reports with multiple swelling of the jaws. Clinical examination reveals multiple hard swellings involving the jaws and intra orally several missing teeth are noticed. Panoramic radiograph reveals multiple radio opaque lesions in the maxilla and the mandible with multiple impacted teeth and supernumerary teeth indicative of Gardeners syndrome: The above mentioned condition is: A. Autosomal dominant disease B. Autosomal recessive disorder C. X-linked disease D. A syndrome of unknown cause
Hemangiopericytoma resembles: A. Hemangioma B. Glomous tumour C. Ewings tumour D. Plasmacytoma
Brachytherapy is: A. Irradiation of tissues from a distance B. Irradiation of tissues from a distance of 3 cm C. Irradiation of tissues by implants within the tissues D. Irradiation of tissues by radiopharmaceuticals
Sarcoma of the soft tissues spread by: A. Blood vessels B. Lymphatics C. Direct invasion D. Local infiltration
Squamous cell carcinoma with best prognosis is: A. Lip B. Tongue C. Palate D. Floor of the mouth
Acanthosis with intraepithelial vacuolation and hyperparakeratosis is seen in: A. Hairy tongue (lingua villosa) B. Hyperplastic candidiasis C. Speckled leukoplakia D. Desquamative gingivitis
The sign or symptom most suggestive of metastatic disease is: A. Paraesthesia B. Sudden swelling C. Root resorption D. Diffuse radiolucency
The oral mucosa becomes rigid, blanched and opaque in which of the following conditions: A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Lupus erythematoses C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Submucous fibrosis
Oral hairy leukoplakia is seen in which of the following conditions: A. AIDS B. Hepatitis B C. Smoker’s keratitis D. Candidiasis
A non-painful, slowly enlarging benign neoplasm appears as a submucosal lump and exhibits pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia in the overlying epithelium, is most probably: A. Fibroma B. Rhabdomyoma C. Granular cell tumour D. Papilloma
Commonest site for carcinoma of tongue is: A. Lateral margin B. Tip of tongue C. Posterio 1/3 D. Ventral surface
The most reliable single histologic criterion for diagnosis of oral squamous cell carcinoma is: A. Invasion B. Degeneration C. Pleomorphism D. Encpsulation
The most common site for metastasis from carcinoma of cheek: A. Brain B. Regional lymph nodes C. Lung D. Liver
The most common precancerous lesion for oral malignancy is: A. chronic hypertrophic candidiasis B. Leukoplakia C. Dental ulcers D. Atrophic glossitis
Carcinoma of lip: A. Occurs mostly is female B. Metastases easily C. Occurs mostly in the lower lip D. Is mostly basal cell type
Granular cell myoblastoma of tongue is: A. Benign tumor B. Malignant tumor of the tongue C. Lymphatic enlargement of the tongue D. Developmental anomaly of the tongue
Starry sky appearance is seen in: A. Pagets disease B. Cherubism C. Garrey’s osteomyelitis D. Burkitts lymphoma
Which of the following conditions is not considered as premalignant A. Erosive lichen planus B. Syphilitic glossitis C. Leukoedema D. Leukoplakia
Frequent bouts of epistaxis are a conspicuous features of: A. Encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis B. Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia C. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma D. Vascular nevus
The term poikilokaryosis refers to: A. Alteration of nuclear cytoplasmic ratio B. Division of nuclei without division of cytoplasm C. Large, Prominent nuclei D. Loss of polarity and disorientation of cells
Which of the following is the most likely (among them) to turn malignant: A. Intradermal nevus B. Junctional nevus C. Lichen planus D. Papilloma
Reed-sternberg cells are characteristically seen in: A. Alpha-thalassemia B. Glandular fever C. Hansan’s disease D. Hodgkin’s disease
Which of the following produces osteoblastic secondaries: A. Carcinoma lung B. Carcinoma breast C. Carcinoma urinary bladder D. Carcinoma prostate
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is seen commonly on: A. Lips B. Buccal mucosa C. Tongue D. Palate
Which of the following lesions are seen in van recklinghausen’s disease of skin: A. Hemangioma B. Ameloblastoma C. Neurofibroma D. Giant cell fibroma
