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Bhatia’s Dentogist | MCQs in Oral Surgery: Fascial Spaces & Infections

Bhatia’s Dentogist | MCQs in Oral Surgery
Fascial Spaces & Infections

Part 2: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery

Bhatia’s Dentogist: MCQs in Dentistry
Part 2 : Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery ( Fascial Spaces and Infections )

FASCIAL SPACES AND INFECTIONS

  1. Occupational cancer involve following organs Except?
    A. Lung
    B. Breast
    C. Bladder
    D. Liver
  2. Life cycle of filarial is?
    A. Cyclodevelopmental
    B. Cyclopropagative
    C. Propagative
    D. Transovarian
  3. Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine?
    A. Zinc
    B. Aluminium
    C. Copper
    D. Magnesium
  4. In India, the cause for maximum maternal mortality is
    A. Anemia
    B. Hemorrhage
    C. Abortion
    D. Sepsis
  5. In a national water supply and sanitation programme a problem village is defined as all except:
    A. Distance of safe water in greater than 1.6 km
    B. Water is exposed to the risk of cholera
    C. Water source has excess iron and heavy metals
    D. Water infested with Guinea worms
  6. Which of the following is an example of disability limitation?
    A. Reducing occurance of polio by immunization.
    B. Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP
    C. Resting affected limbs in neutral position
    D. Providing calipers for walking
  7. Which of the following agent is of value in the post operative care of haemophilic patients?
    A. Vitamin K
    B. Munsell’s solution
    C. Aminocaproic acid
    D. Factor 8 cryoprecipitate
  8. Which of the following agent is of value in the post operative care of haemophilic patients?
    A. Vitamin K (AI 2009)
    B. Munsell’s solution
    C. Aminocaproic acid
    D. Factor 8 cryoprecipitate
  9. The trismus following a lower molar extraction after-4 weeks may be due to: (AI 2001)
    A. Breakage of needle in pterygomandibular space
    B. Hematoma of TMJ
    C. Submasseteric space abscess
    D. Root stump in the socket
  10. Which of the following features is not associated with acute osteomyelitis of mandible: (AI 2004)
    A. Severe pain
    B. Purulent exudates
    C. Paresthesia of lower lip
    D. Radiographic evidence of bone destruction
  11. The main causative organism in Ludwig Angina is:
    A. Streptococcus viridans
    B. Staphylococcus albus
    C. Staphylococcus aureus
    D. Streptococcus hemolyticus
  12. The fascial spaces involved in ludwigs angina are: (AI 2004)
    A. Unilateral –submandibular & sublingual spaces
    B. Bilateral –submandibular & sublingual spaces
    C. Unilateral-submandibular, sublingual & submental spaces
    D. Bilateral –submandibular, sublingual & submental spaces
  13. The recommended time gap between the radiation and surgery to avoid Osteoradionecrosis is? (PGI June 2008)
    A. 4-6 weeks after radiotherapy
    B. 6-12 months after radiotherapy
    C. Immediately after radiotherapy
    D. Any time during the course of radiotherapy
  14. Trismus can result from the infection of which space? (PGI June 2008)
    A. Submandibular Space
    B. Sublingual Space
    C. Submasseteric Space
    D. Buccal Space
  15. Drug which can cause the Osteonecrosis of the jaw is? (PGI June 2008)
    A. Corticosteroids
    B. Calcitonin
    C. Bisphosphonate
    D. None
  16. Which of the following is not a content of Pterygomandibular space? (AIIMS Nov 2006)
    A. Long buccal nerve
    B. Nerve to medial pterygoid
    C. Nerve to mylohyoid
    D. Lingual nerve
  17. Which of the following is not a feature of Hutchinson’s triad: (KCET 2007)
    A. Gumma
    B. Hypoplasia of incisors and molar
    C. Eighth nerve deafness
    D. Interstitial keratitis
  18. Cavernous sinus thrombosis can occur due to spread of odontogenic infection via:
    A. Tissue spaces (KCET 2007)
    B. Lymphatic route
    C. Haematogenous route
    D. All of the above
  19. Which of the following infection is the cause for multiple sites of osteomyelitis of the jaw:
    A. Peritonsillar abscess (KCET 2007)
    B. Local trauma
    C. Haematogenous infection
    D. Buccal space infection
  20. Fascial spaces are filled by:
    A. Loose connective tissue
    B. Elastic fibres
    C. Loose adipose tissue
    D. Dead space
  21. The characteristic features of infection of masticator space is:
    A. Swelling
    B. Discharging pus intraorally
    C. Trismus
    D. High grade fever
  22. The infections of masticator space do not enter into neck because:
    A. The fascia is tenaciously adherent to mylohyoid line
    B. The fascia is firmly adherent to periosteum of lower border of mandible
    C. Before it reaches the neck it follows path of least resistance to open extmorally or intraorally
    D. Masticator space is not continuous with spaces in neck
  23. The infection of masticator space can spread to (except):
    A. Temporal pouches
    B. Lateral pharyngeal space
    C. Sublingual space
    D. Submandibular space
  24. Swellings of masticator space and lateral pharyngeal space are similar. The distinctive difference is that masticator space infection:
    A. Is of dental origin
    B. Is not pushed towards the midline
    C. Is more diffuse and visible from outside
    D. Has a tendency to spread to temporal pouches
  25. Incision and drainage of masticator space should be attempted:
    A. At region anterior to masseter muscle Intraorally from buccal sulcus
    B. Extraorally in subangular region
    C. From pterygomandibular raphe
  26. Infections from mandibular 1st molar would travel to:
    A. Submandibular space
    B. Sublingual space
    C. Masticator space
    D. Digestric space
  27. The major structures present in the submandibular space are:
    A. Deep part of submandibular gland, branches of facial artery, lingual nerve
    B. Superficial part of submandibular gland, branches of facial artery and lingual nerve
    C. Superficial part of submandibular gland, branches of facial artery, mylohyoid nerve
    D. Submandibular duct, lingual nerve and hypoglossal nerve
  28. In Ludwig’s angina the classical sign is:
    A. Tongue is raised and falls back causing respiratory embarrassment
    B. That submandibular sublingual and submental spaces are involved though tongue may not be raised
    C. That submandibular, sublingual and submental spaces are involved bilaterally
    D. Board-like brawny induration of mandible with tongue falling back and causing respiratory embarrassment
  29. In Ludwig’s angina the incision should be placed deep uptill:
    A. Mylohyoid muscle
    B. Anterior belly of digastric
    C. Geniohyoid
    D. Mucous membrane of floor of mouth
  30. Infections of lateral pharyngeal space travel usually from:
    A. Temporal pouches
    B. Masticator space
    C. Sublingual space
    D. None of the above
  31. Infections of lateral pharyngeal space are life threatening because they carry dangers of:
    A. Thrombosis of IJV
    B. Erosion of ICA
    C. Oedema of larynx
    D. All of the above
  32. Infections from lateral pharyngeal space can transverse to:
    A. Anterior mediastinum
    B. Middle mediastinum
    C. Posterior mediastinum
    D. Only superior mediastinum
  33. Infections from submandibular space and submental space usually transverse to:
    A. Anterior mediastinum
    B. Middle mediastinum
    C. Posterior mediastinum
    D. Only superior mediastinum
  34. Infections which travel from masticator space to parotid space are very painful because:
    A. Facial nerve is irritated
    B. The capsule of parotid does not give way for the developing infection to spread
    C. Auriculotemporal nerve is irritated by infection
    D. None of the above
  35. While giving a inferior alveolar nerve block, infection is transposed to:
    A. Pterygopalatine fossa
    B. Pterygomandibular space
    C. Submandibular space
    D. Masticator space
  36. While giving posterior superior alveolar nerve block, infection may be instituted into:
    A. Pterygomandibular space
    B. Infratemporal fossa
    C. Temporal pouches
    D. Pterygopalatine fossa
  37. A patient, presented with ophthalmoplegia and signs of meningitis after extraction of upper central incisor, could be diagnosed as due to:
    A. Tumour of pituitary
    B. Tuberculous meningitis
    C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
    D. No relation
  38. The diagnostic sign/s which Engelton characterised for cavernous sinus thrombosis is/are:
    A. Known site of infection
    B. Paresis of III, IV, VI nerves
    C. Proptosis of eye and (B)
    D. All of the above
  39. Dissecting subperiosteal abscess develops:
    A. Immediately after 3rd molar extraction on lingual side
    B. Several weeks later and distant to site of 3rd molar extraction
    C. In association of post extraction infection in buccal area of extracted 3rd molar
    D. When extensive dissection is done while extracting an impacted tooth
  40. An acute alveolar abscess should be treated with:
    A. First antibiotics for three days and then incision and drainage
    B. Incision and drainage with broad spectrum antibiotic
    C. Broad spectrum antibiotics and analgesic
    D. Antibiotics and proteolytic drugs as chymotrypsin
  41. Osteomyelitis begins as an inflammation of:
    A. Cortical bone
    B. Periosteum
    C. Medullary bone
    D. Periosteum and inner cortex
  42. Which of the following conditions are susceptible to osteomyelitis:
    A. Paget’s disease
    B. Fibrous dysplasia
    C. Radiation
    D. All of the above
  43. Osteomyelitis is more common in:
    A. Maxilla
    B. Mandible
    C. Zygoma
    D. Nasal complex
  44. Osteomyelitis is caused most commonly by:
    A. Streptococcus
    B. Staphylococcus
    C. M. tuberculosis
    D. E. coli
  45. In osteomyelitis how much bone should have been destroyed before it manifests radiologically:
    A. 10-12%
    B. 15%
    C. 30-60%
    D. 80%
  46. Moth eaten appearance so characteristically seen in radiographs of osteomyelitis is due to:
    A. Presence of sequestrum
    B. Enlargement of medullary spaces
    C. Reduced medullary spaces
    D. Narrowing of Volkmann’s canals
  47. Treatment of chronic osteomyelitis consists of:
    A. Culture sensitivity and prolonged antibiotic therapy
    B. Culture sensitivity with antibiotic therapy and hyperbaric oxygen therapy
    C. Sequesterectomy, surgical exploration and prolonged antibiotic therapy after culture sensitivity
    D. Sequesterectomy, antibiotics after sensitivity and hydrocortisone therapy
  48. Sancerisation as a surgical treatment for osteomyelitis connotes:
    A. Complete removal of decayed bone with primary closure of wound
    B. Trimming or excision of margins of necrotic bone overlying focus of osteomyelitis and allowing secondary healing
    C. Creating a saucer shaped defect by excision of the defect with primary closure
    D. None of the above
  49. In treating osteomyelitis with hyperbaric oxygen:
    A. 30% oxygen is used at 1 atm
    B. 70% oxygen is used at 2 atm
    C. 100% oxygen is used at 3 atm
    D. 80% oxygen is used at 2 atm
  50. A 40-year old patient presented with multiple extracral sinuses with yellowish discharge and with history of intermittent remission after anti- biotics treatment two months ago. The disease started after extraction of 2nd mandibular premolar. It is suggestive of:
    A. Tubercular osteomyelitis
    B. Actinomycosis
    C. Subperiosteal Garre osteomyelitis
    D. Dissecting subperiosteal abscess
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