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Bhatia’s Dentogist | MCQs in Oral Surgery: EXODONTIA & OTHER MEDICAL CONDITIONS

Bhatia's Dentogist MCQs in Oral Surgery EXODONTIA & OTHER MEDICAL CONDITIONS

Bhatia's Dentogist MCQs in Oral Surgery EXODONTIA & OTHER MEDICAL CONDITIONS

Bhatia’s Dentogist | MCQs in Oral Surgery
Exodontia & Other Medical Conditions

Part 5 : Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery

Bhatia’s Dentogist: MCQs in Dentistry
Part 5 : Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery (Exodontia & Other Medical Conditions)

  1. Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of
    A. Anemia
    B. Eosinophilia
    C. Spherocytoses
    D. Thrombocytopenic purpura
  2. A patient with multiple injuries exhibits paradoxical chest movements during inspiration or expiration is due to?
    A. Pneumothorax
    B. Flail chest
    C. Cardiac tamponade
    D. Hemothorax
  3. Which of the following is most common impaction of mandibular third molar?
    A. Mesioangular
    B. Distoangular
    C. Horizontal
    D. Vertical
  4. Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of:
    A. Anemia (AI 2009)
    B. Eosinophilia
    C. Spherocytoses
    D. Thrombocytopenic purpura.
  5. A patient with multiple injuries exhibits paradoxical chest movements during inspiration or expiration is due to?
    A. Pneumothorax (AI 2009)
    B. Flail chest
    C. Cardiac tamponade
    D. Hemothorax
  6. Which of the following is most common impaction of mandibular third molar?
    A. Mesioangular (AI 2009)
    B. Distoangular
    C. Horizontal
    D. Vertical
  7. Following a lower molar extraction a patient develops transient bell’s palsy. This may be due to penetration by the local anesthetic into.
    A. Maxillary artery (AI 2001)
    B. Buccinator muscle
    C. Temporalis muscle
    D. Parotid gland
  8. Following an inferior alveolar nerve block a patient develops drooping of the corner of the mouth and difficulty in closing the eyes. This may be due to: (AI 2001)
    A. Ophthalmic nerve block
    B. Maxillary nerve block
    C. Diffusion of the solution into parotid
    D. None of the above
  9. During exodontia, it is seen that the tuberosity is fractured but remains attached to the mucoperiosteum with an intact blood supply. The treatment is: (AI 2001)
    A. Remove the tuberosity
    B. Refer to an oral surgeon
    C. Elevate a flap and do transosseous wiring
    D. Reposition the fragments and stabilize with sutures.
  10. Which of the following elevators fits well in the operators hand and can be rotated between the thumb and the finger: (AI 2001)
    A. Coupland elevator
    B. Hospital pattern elevator
    C. Winter’s elevator
    D. Warwick- James elevator
  11. Which of the following cardiovascular conditions can result in a medical emergency in the dental office causing substernal pain, facial pallor, and cold perspiration: (AI 2001)
    A. Angina pectoris
    B. Cor pulmonale
    C. Hypertension
    D. Patent ductus arteriosus
  12. A patient on an anticoagulant therapy requires extraction. The prothrombin time is 21 seconds with a control of 15 seconds. The appropriate management is: (AI 2001)
    A. Extraction of the tooth with local hemostypics and sutures
    B. Extraction of tooth immediately after injection of vitamin K
    C. Discontinue the anticoagulant therapy prior to extraction
    D. Regulation of anticoagulant therapy with heparin
  13. The COW HORN forceps is designed specially for use on: (AI 2002)
    A. Lower centrals
    B. Mandibular molars
    C. Maxillary molars
    D. Bifurcated upper premolars
  14. Most important purpose during extraction:
    A. Least trauma to bone while extracting whole tooth out. (AI 2002)
    B. Least trauma to mucosa while extracting the whole tooth out
    C. Least trauma to both bone and mucosa while extracting the tooth in pieces
    D. None of the above
  15. The elevator can be used to advantage when: (AI 2002)
    A. The tooth to be extracted is isolated
    B. The interdental bone is used as a fulcrum
    C. The adjacent tooth is not be extracted
    D. Multiple adjacent teeth are to be extracted
  16. An excess of which of the following hormones may be associated with sensitivity to epinephrine: (AI 2003)
    A. Testosterone
    B. Parathyroid
    C. Insulin
    D. Thyroid
  17. For a patient undergoing anticoagulant therapy who requires unavoidable dental surgical treatment the dental surgeon should: (AI 2003)
    A. Not take up the patient till the therapy is over
    B. Bring down the dose & proceed further
    C. Adjust the dosage before and after dental visit
    D. Consult the physician of the patient for joint decision
  18. In the inferior alveolar nerve block, the needle is inserted adjacent & lateral to a raphe formed by the buccinator and the: (AI 2003)
    A. Middle constrictor of pharynx
    B. Internal pterygoid
    C. Temporalis
    D. Superior constrictor
  19. Dry socket following extraction of a tooth is caused due to: (AI 2004)
    A. Staphylococcus aureus infection
    B. Disintegration of blood clot
    C. prolonged antibiotic cover
    D. Unsutured socket
  20. In Winter’s WAR line, amber line represents the: (AI 2004)
    A. Relative depth of III molar
    B. Point of application of elevator
    C. Bone level covering the impacted tooth
    D. Axial inclination of the impacted tooth relative to the II molar
  21. A 55 year old patients of myocardial infarction is on 75mg aspirin for last 6 months. He has to undergo extraction of carious tooth. What the dentist should do?
    A. Extraction can be done as this dose of aspirin dose not lead to marked bleeding during extraction (PGI Dec 2008)
    B. Stop aspirin atleast for 3 days prior to extraction
    C. Stop aspirin atleast for 7 days prior to extraction
    D. Give platelets infusion and then do the extraction.
  22. The easiest impaction of mandibular molars is?
    A. Mesioangular (PGI Dec 2008)
    B. Distoangular
    C. Vertical
    D. Horizontal
  23. Cardiac condition requiring Antibiotic prophylaxis for Infective Endocarditis?
    A. Coronary Heart Disease (PGI Dec 2008)
    B. Rheumatic Heart Disease
    C. Cardiac Pacemakers
    D. Hypertensive Heart Disease
  24. A patient with 5 days back extracted third molar complains of loss of blood clot, pain with no fever and swelling is best treated by?
    A. Irrigation and socket with sedative placement and analgesic (AIIMS May 2007)
    B. Curettage of the socket and induce bleeding
    C. Left untreated and observed for few days
    D. Start, antibiotics followed by curettage of the socket
  25. 25 year healthy patient require extraction of grossly decayed third molar, the treatment indicated is: (PGI Dec 2006)
    A. Extraction of tooth without any need of medication.
    B. Extraction of tooth under antibiotic cover
    C. Extraction under antibiotic cover and analgesics.
    D. None
  26. A patient is taking oral anticoagulant. INR ratio is 3.1, The treatment plan for extraction is? (PGI Dec 2006)
    A. Avoid extraction as INR is much higher
    B. Proceed with normal extraction with the use of local hemostatic measures.
    C. Stop the oral anticoagulant for 7 days and do the extraction.
    D. None of the above.
  27. Which of the following is not a part of Complete Blood Examination (PGI June 2007)
    A. Hematocrit
    B. WBC Count
    C. Hb Estimation
    D. ESR
  28. Antibiotic Prophylaxis is required for?
    A. Cirrhosis of Liver (PGI June 2007)
    B. Bronchial Asthma
    C. Angina Pectoris
    D. Valvular Heart Disease
  29. Ammonia inhalation used during syncope acts by producing? (PGI Dec 2007)
    A. Respiratory stimulation
    B. Bronchodilation
    C. Sedation
    D. Vasoconstriction
  30. Treatment of localized pain 3-4 days post extraction due to loss of clot is done by:
    A. Irrigation of the socket and placement of sedative dressing (AIIMS May 2007)
    B. Curettage of the socket
    C. Creation of new blood clot
    D. Placement of analgesics and antibiotics directly in the socket
  31. In a vasovagal syncope, which of the following does not occur: (AI 2007)
    A. Hypotension and tachycardia
    B. Constriction of pupil
    C. Vomiting
    D. Cold extremities
  32. Amber line of the “WAR” line indicates: (AI 2007)
    A. Corresponding to the occlusal plane
    B. Denotes the alveolar bone covering the impacted tooth and portion not covered by bone
    C. The depth of the tooth in the bone
    D. None
  33. The least difficult impaction to remove surgically is: (PGI Dec 2008)
    A. Vertical
    B. Mesioangular
    C. Distoangular
    D. Horizontal
  34. Gut suturing material is absorbed by:
    A. Oxidation (KCET 2007)
    B. Hydrolysis
    C. Fibrinolysis
    D. Proteolysis
  35. The most common reason for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars: (AI 2006)
    A. Referred pain
    B. Orthodontic treatment
    C. Recurrent pericoronitis
    D. Chronic periodontal disease
  36. The antibiotic cover is mandatory before extraction in the following conditions of the heart: (AI 2006)
    A. Ischemic heart disease (IHD)
    B. Hypertension
    C. Congestive cardiac failure
    D. Congenital heart disease
  37. Mucoperiosteal flaps: (AI 2005)
    A. When raised do not cause postoperative swelling and pain
    B. Are raised whenever bone removal is desired to facilitate extraction
    C. Are routinely raised during extraction
    D. When raised will cause trauma and injury to underlying osseous tissues
  38. The elevators used in exodontia are functionally:
    A. Class I levers only
    B. Class I and II levers
    C. Class III levers only
    D. Only wedge-shaped
  39. While removing mandibular 3rd molar which part of bone should be used as a fulcrum?
    A. Lingual cortical bone
    B. Mesial inter-radicular bone
    C. Buccal alveolar bone
    D. Distal surface of adjacent crown
  40. Mechanical advantage would be maximum for an elevator when:
    A. Effort arm is greater than resistance arm
    B. Resistance arm is greater than effort arm
    C. When fulcrum is in the centre
    D. When fulcrum is near the point of effort
  41. When maxillary lateral incisor has to be extracted the first movement of forcep should be:
    A. Labially then apically
    B. Palatally then apically
    C. Labially or palatally
    D. Apically then palatally
  42. Mead forceps are used for extraction of:
    A. Maxillary molars
    B. Mandibular incisors
    C. Maxillary canines
    D. Maxillary premolars
  43. To extract mandibular premolars the first movement of forceps should be:
    A. Apical and labial
    B. Apical and lingual
    C. Apical and medial
    D. Labial and no apical movement
  44. When maxillary and mandibular teeth are to be extracted simultaneously the order of extraction should be:
    A. Maxillary teeth followed by mandibular teeth
    B. Mandibular teeth followed by maxillary teeth
    C. It does not matter which teeth are removed first
    D. For anterior region mandibular first and for posterior region maxillary first
  45. When simultaneous extractions have to be carried out in one maxillary segment the order of extraction should be:
    A. Incisors, canine, premolars, molars
    B. 3rd molar, 2nd molar, 2nd premolar, 1st molar, 1st premolar, incisors, canine
    C. Molars, premolars, canine, incisors
    D. Molars, premolars, incisors, canine
  46. The Stobis method of extraction is indicated when:
    A. Two adjacent teeth have to be removed
    B. When central incisor is to be extracted
    C. When isolated molar is to be extracted and adjacent teeth are absent
    D. Upper and lower 3rd molars have to be extracted simultaneously
  47. ‘White line’ described by George Winter is a line drawn:
    A. Along occlusal surfaces of erupted mandibular molars extending to impacted third molar region
    B. From crest of bone lying distal to third molar to crest of the interdental septum between 1st and 2nd molar
    C. From perpendicular to ‘amber line’
    D. From perpendicular to ‘red line’
  48. ‘Red Line’ as described by George Winter is demarcated as a line:
    A. Drawn from bone distal to third molar to crest of the interdental septum between 1st and 2nd molar
    B. Which is a perpendicular dropped from ‘amber line’ to point of application of elevator
    C. Which is a perpendicular dropped from ‘white line’ to point of application of elevator
    D. None of the above
  49. If in a mesioangular mandibular impaction there is ‘apical notch’ visible on a radiograph the tooth should:
    A. Not be removed
    B. Be removed by lingual split technique
    C. Be removed by splitting the tooth
    D. None of the above
  50. Which type of mandibular impactions are most commonly associated with ‘apical notch’ formation:
    A. Mesioangular
    B. Distoangular
    C. Vertical
    D. A and B
  51. The disadvantage of lingual split technique is/are:
    A. Injury to lingual nerve
    B. Opening up of facial spaces on lingual side and floor of mouth
    C. Chances of dislodging tooth or root in sublingual space
    D. All of the above
  52. The basic advantage of lingual split technique for extraction of mandibular impacted teeth is/are:
    A. Bone loss is minimal
    B. Easy and quick method
    C. Tissue trauma is minimal
    D. All of the above
  53. Lateral trepanation technique of Bowdler Henry is indicated for:
    A. Extraction of impacted canines
    B. Removal of impacted premolars
    C. Removal of partially formed unerupted third molars
    D. Treating dentigerous cysts with enclosed third molars
  54. The chisel should be used with:
    A. Bevel towards the bone which is to be saved
    B. Bevel towards the bone which is to be sacrificed
    C. Bevel direction is not important
    D. Flat surface parallel to direction of grains of bone
  55. While making vertical incision for flap for mandibular third molar impactions one can injure:
    A. Buccal pad of fat
    B. Branches of lingual nerve
    C. Branches of facial nerve
    D. Branches of facial artery/vein
  56. Dry socket commonly occurs after:
    A. 24 hours
    B. 2 days
    C. 3-4 days
    D. 10-15 days
  57. The treatment of localised osteitis is:
    A. Debridement, curettage and sedative packing
    B. Curettage, irrigation and sedative packing
    C. Irrigation and sedative packing
    D. None of the above
  58. The complication of using air rotor at 30,000 rpm for impacted molars is:
    A. Necrosis of bone
    B. Dehiscence
    C. Tissue laceration
    D. Emphysema
  59. The most important suture while closing Ward’s incision for impacted mandibular third molar is:
    A. Suturing of vertical limb
    B. Suturing of retromolar limb
    C. Suture of area immediately distal to 2nd molar
    D. None of the above

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