Exodontia and Impaction MCQs
1. All of the following statements about inhaled tooth fragments are true except:
A. It usually enters the right bronchus.
B. It may cause lung abscess.
C. It may cause bronchiectasis.
D. It will be coughed out spontaneously. No treatment necessary
2. Rotatory movement is used for the extraction of:
A. Mandibular canine.
B. Maxillary central incisors
C. Maxillary lateral incisors
D. All of the above
3. A pregnant patient in 2nd trimester falls into syncope during extraction of upper molars, she should be kept in:
A. Trendelenburg position
B. Head down towards her feet
C. Right lateral position
D. Left lateral position
4. Reactionary hemorrhage occurs after extraction because of:
A. Broken roots
B. High BP
C. Sharp interdental septum
D. Gingival laceration.
5. The Mechanical advantage obtained from wheel and axel principle of elevator is:
A. 2.5
B. 3
C. 4.6
D. 6
6. The extraction of which of the following is most difficult in maxillary arch?
A. Lateral incisor.
B. 1st premolar
C. 2nd premolar
D. Canine
7. Displacement of root in maxillary sinus is most likely to happen during extraction of maxillary:
A. Canine
B. Deciduous 1st molar
C. 1st molar
D. 2nd molar
8. Which of the following is relatively difficult tooth to extract?
A. Maxillary canine
B. Maxillary central incisor
C. Mandibular premolar
D. Mandibular canine.
9. A patient who is on dicoumarol therapy required a tooth extraction. Which laboratory test is most valuable in evaluating the surgical risk?
A. Clotting time.
B. Bleeding time.
C. Prothrobin time.
D. Complete blood cell count.
10. A male is taking 60 mg of hydrocortisone daily on day of extraction the dose should be:
A. Remain unchanged
B. Reduced to ½
C. Double
D. Reduced to ¼
11. Use of medical history in extraction patient is:
A. In medico legal cases
B. To assess the growth stage of patient
C. To determine bleeding disorders
D. To determine communicable disease
12. In patient of liver disease, possible complication during extraction is:
A. Dry socket.
B. Facial space infection
C. Bleeding.
D. Loss of clot.
13. Dry socket:
A. Results from loss of blood clot in socket.
B. Is treated by re-inducing bleeding in socket
C. Is a form of osteomyelitis
D. Is common in extraction of anterior teeth
14. Trismus following a lower molar extraction after 4 weeks will be due to:
A. Breakage of needle in pterygomandibular space
B. Hematoma of TMJ
C. Submassetric space abscess
D. Root stump in socket
15. Reactionary haemorrhage is haemorrhage after surgery that occurs:
A. Within 24 hours
B. After 24 hours
C. After 72 hours
D. After 7 days
16. Which of the following elevators fit well in operators hand and can be rotated quickly by between thumb and finger?
A. Couplan elevator
B. Hospital pattern elevation
C. Winter’s elevator
D. Warwick james elevator
17. An absolute contraindication for extraction of teeth is:
A. Hypertension
B. MI
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Central haemangioma
18. Elective dental extraction on a patient who has had a M-I, 2 months prior are best:
A. Performed under oral sedative.
B. Performed using epinephrine free injection.
C. Performed using both of above
D. Postponed until at least till 6 months have relapsed.
19. Root tip elevator utilizes which principle:
A. Wedge
B. Pulley
C. Wheel and axel
D. None of these
20. One day after complete mouth extraction blue black spots are seen on neck of patient. These spots indicate:
A. Therombocytopenic purpura
B. Postoperative ecchymosis
C. Impaired blood circulation
D. Cellulitis
21. In extraction best time to administer analgesic is:
A. Before anesthesia wears off
B. Prior to extraction
C. When pain is moderate to severe
D. After anaesthesia wears off
22. Extraction of a tooth during acute infection:
A. Can cause extensive spread of infection
B. Helps drainage and relieves pain if proper antibiotic is given and its adequate blood level is reached.
C. Can cause sudden death due to pulmonary embolism
D. Can lead to trigeminal neuralgia in postoperative of period
23. Most important principle during extraction:
A. Least trauma to bone while extracting whole tooth out
B. Least trauma to mucosa while extracting whole tooth out
C. A and B while extracting tooth
D. None of the above
24. When a forcep is to be utilized for removal of tooth, the 1st direction for tooth to be applied is:
A. Occlusally
B. Buccally
C. Lingually
D. Apically
25. The ideal treatment of alveolar osteitis after dental extraction is:
A. Topical antibiotics
B. Systemic antibiotics
C. Debridement of socket and sedative dressing
D. Curettage to induce fresh bleeding
26. Elevator can be used to advantage when?
A. Tooth to be extracted is isolated
B. Adjacent tooth bone is used as fulcrum
C. Adjacent tooth is not to be extracted
D. Multiple adjacent teeth are to be extracted
27. Basic principles of extraction are all except:
A. No trauma to bone and mucosa
B. Expansion of bony socket
C. Application of lever and fulcrum
D. Insertion of wedge
28. During extraction it is seen that the tuberosity is fractured but remains attached to mucoperiosteum. The treatment is:
A. Remove the tuberosity
B. Refer to oral surgeon
C. Elevate frap and do transosseous wiring
D. Reposition fragments and stabilize sutures
29. During extraction of lower impacted right molar bone is removed:
A. To expose maximum dimension of tooth
B. Up to CEJ
C. Up to furcation area
D. Up to half of root
30. No. 16 cowhorn forcep are specially designed to extract:
A. Maxillary 1st and 2nd premolar
B. Mandibular central incisor
C. Mandibular molar
D. Maxillary molar
31. Diagnosis of dry socket is done by:
A. History
B. Clinical examination.
C. Radiographs
D. None of the above
32. Which teeth are extracted standing behind the patient?
A. Maxillary left molars
B. Mandibular left side
C. Maxillary right side
D. Mandibular right side
33. Bleeding caused in extraction socket due to wound sepsis after few days is called as
A. Primary haemorrhage
B. Reactionary
C. Secondary
D. Systemic
34. For a patient undergoing anticoagulant therapy who requires unavoidable dental surgical treatment the dental surgeon should:
A. Not take patient until therapy is over
B. Bring down dosage and proceed further
C. Adjust dosage before and after dental treatment
D. Consult physician of patient for joint decision
35. The only tooth to be extracted by primary rotatory movements is:
A. Mandibular central incisor and maxillary 2nd premolar
B. Maxillary central incisors and mandibular 2nd premolar
C. Maxillary central incisor and mandibular 1st premolar
D. Mandibular central incisor and maxillary 1st premolar
36. Principle action of ammonia in syncope is as:
A. Vasomolar stimulant
B. Respiratory stimulant
C. Vagal stimulant
D. Inhibition of vasomotor tone
37. Best time of extraction in pregnancy is:
A. 1st trimester
B. 2nd trimester
C. 3rd trimester
D. None of the above
38. Rubber band extraction is method of extraction is patients having:
A. Bleeding disorder
B. MJ and angina
C. Supernumerary teeth
D. Impacted teeth
39. Hypoglycemia may occur in patient taking insulin and undergoing extraction when?
A. Extraction is done on empty stomach
B. Patient had infection
C. Patient had no exercise in morning
D. Patient had breakfast before extraction
40. Elevators should be forced down the PDL at an angle of ___________ to long axis of tooth:
A. 60 deg
B. 30 deg
C. 90 deg
D. 45 deg
41. Chair position during extraction of maxillary teeth should be:
A. 16 cm below elbow of operator
B. 16 Cm below shoulder level of operator
C. 16 cm below shoulder of operator
D. 8 cm below elbow of operator
42. During multiple extractions, it should be done in sequence of:
A. Maxillary before mandibular anterior before posterior
B. Mandibular before maxillary post before anterior
C. Maxillary before mandibular, posterior before anterior
D. Mandibular before maxillary anterior before posterior
43. During extraction priorities should be given to all except:
A. Roots before whole teeth
B. Painful teeth before loose tooth
C. Anteriors before posterior
D. Lower before upper
44. Beaks of mandibular tooth forceps are at an angle of _________ to handle:
A. 45 deg
B. 60 deg
C. 90 deg
D. 0 deg
45. While using elevators, fulcrum is taken from:
A. Adjacent tooth
B. Finger
C. Interdental bone
D. Tooth to be extracted
46. Expansion of bony socket causes:
A. Tear of PDL
B. Multiple small fractures of buccal plate and interradicular septum
C. Elevation of tooth from socket
D. All of the above
47. Radiographs are useful in following cases except:
A. Impacted
B. Abnormal shape of roots
C. Tooth with deep PD pocket
D. Ankylosis
48. Extraction of disto-angular impaction of mandibular third molar can cause:
A. Slippage in the lingual pouch.
B. Fracture of ramus of the mandible
C. Excessive hemorrhage
D. Dry socket
49. A dentist removes a maxillary premolar and notices that she has created an oroantral communication, which is 4 mm in diameter. Which of the following is an appropriate treatment?
A. No surgical treatment
B. Figure-of-eight sutures to maintain integrity of the blood clot within the socket
C. Requires a buccal fat pad flap advancement
D. Tongue flap advancement
50. Extraction of a maxillary second molar has resulted in perforation of maxillary antrum 0.5 cm in diameter. An acceptable procedure would be
A. Caldwell-Luc procedure.
B. Creation of nasal antrostomy window for proper aeration and drainage.
C. Smoothing bone margins of the socket and placement of sutures across the socket.
D. Insertion of iodoform gauze packing into the socket to allow healing by second intention.
51. Which of the following instrument is used to tease the very small root end of a tooth?
A. Crane pick
B. Barry`s
C. Heidbrink
D. Cryer
52. Signs and symptoms of alveolar osteitis include all of the following except:
A. Pain commencing 2 to 5 days following the extraction
B. Accompanied by a foul taste or smell
C. It is a self-limiting condition that will improve and resolve with time
D. Treat with antibiotics and pain medications
53. What is the initial force direction with forceps placed on a tooth for a successful extraction?
A. Apical
B. Buccal
C. Palatal
D. Occlusally
54. A 24-year-old male with history of 1-ppd smoking and occasional alcohol use presents to your office 4 days after a routine extraction of #30 with complaints of severe throbbing pain and a foul taste, but on examination, there is no drainage or erythema of the area. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Inferior alveolar nerve injury
B. Alveolar osteitis
C. Infection
D. Osteomyelitis
55. Which tooth cannot be removed by only rotation motion?
A. Maxillary central incisor
B. Maxillary lateral incisor
C. Maxillary canine
D. Maxillary first premolar
56. Which of the following is False when extracting primary teeth:
A. The same principles are applied as for permanent teeth
B. General anaesthesia may be required
C. It is essential to protect the airway during the removal of teeth under general anaesthesia to prevent blood, tooth fragments or teeth entering the airway
D. It is essential not to retain any roots as these may impede the eruption of the permanent successor
E. A surgical procedure may be required if the tooth has become submerged.
57. For maxillary extractions, the upper jaw of the patient should be:
A. Below the height of the operator’s shoulder
B. Above the height of the operator’s shoulder
C. At the same height of the operator’s shoulder
D. It makes no difference where the patient’s upper jaw is in relation to the operator’s shoulder
58. Which of the following is Not contraindication to tooth extraction:
A. Acute pericoronitis
B. Acute apical abscess
C. End-stage renal disease
D. Acute infectious stomatitis
59. During extraction of a maxillary third molar, you realize the tuberosity has also been extracted. What is the proper treatment in this case?
A. Remove the tuberosity from the tooth and reimplant the tuberosity
B. Smooth the sharp edges of the remaining bone and suture the remaining soft tissue
C. No special treatment is necessary
D. None of the above
60. The ideal time to remove impacted third molars is:
A. When the root is fully formed
B. When the root is approximately two-thirds formed
C. Makes no difference how much of the root is formed
D. When the root is approximately one-third formed
61. When would you place a suture over a single extraction socket?
A. Routinely
B. Never
C. If the patient requests it
D. When there is severe bleeding from the gingiva or if the gingival cuff is torn or loose
62. The most commonly impacted teeth are the mandibular third molars, maxillary third molars, and the:
A. Maxillary canines
B. Maxillary lateral incisors
C. Mandibular first molars
D. Mandibular premolars
63. All of the following are cardinal signs of a localized osteitis (dry socket) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Throbbing pain (often radiating)
B. Bilateral lymphadenopathy
C. Fetid odor
D. Bad taste
E. Poorly healed extraction site
64. Which of the following is the primary direction of luxation for extracting maxillary deciduous molars?
A. Buccal
B. Palatal
C. Mesial
D. Distal
65. The root of which tooth is most often dislodged into the maxillary sinus during an extraction procedure?
A. Palatal root of the maxillary first premolar
B. Palatal root of the maxillary first molar
C. Palatal root of the maxillary second molar
D. Palatal root of the maxillary third molar
66. To extract a tooth the following type of grip is most desirable:
A. The whole of the inner surface of the forceps blade should fit the root surface
B. Only edges of the forceps blade should contact the tooth (Two point contact)
C. Only single lever contact between forceps blade and root surface (one point contact)
D. Grip plays little role in extraction
67. Exodontia elevators are based on principle of:
A. Levers
B. Wedge
C. Wheel and axle
D. All of the above
68. While removing mandibular 3rd molar which part of bone should be used as a fulcrum?
A. Lingual cortical bone
B. Mesial inter-radicular bone
C. Buccal alveolar bone
D. Distal surface of adjacent crown
69. Mechanical advantage would be maximum for an elevator when:
A. Effort arm is greater than resistance arm
B. Resistance arm is greater than effort arm
C. When fulcrum is in the center.
D. When fulcrum is near the point of effort
70. When maxillary lateral incisor has to be extracted the first movement of forcep should be:
A. Labially then apically
B. Palatally then apically
C. Labially or palatally
D. Apically then palatally
71. Mead forceps are used for extraction of:
A. Maxillary molars
B. Mandibular incisors
C. Maxillary canines
D. Maxillary premolars
72. To extract mandibular premolars the first movement of forceps should be:
A. Apical and labial
B. Apical and lingual
C. Apical and mesial
D. Labial and no apical movement
73. When maxillary and mandibular teeth are to be extracted simultaneously the order of extraction should be:
A. Maxillary teeth followed by mandibular teeth
B. Mandibular teeth followed by maxillary teeth
C. It does not matter which teeth are removed first
D. For anterior region mandibular first and for posterior region maxillary first.
74. When simultaneous extractions have to be carried out in one maxillary segment the order of extraction should be:
A. Incisors, canine, premolars, molars
B. 3rd molar, second molar, 2nd premolar, 1st molar, 1st premolar, incisors, canine
C. Molars, premolars, canine, incisors
D. Molars, premolars, incisors, canine.
75. The Stobis method of extraction is indicated when:
A. Two adjacent teeth have to be removed
B. When central incisor is to be extracted
C. When isolated molar is to be extracted and adjacent teeth are absent
D. Upper and lower 3rd molars have to be extracted simultaneously
76. Which of the following is most common impaction of mandibular third molar?
A. Mesioangular
B. Distoangular
C. Horizontal
D. Vertical
77. Which of the following elevators fits well in the operators hand and can be rotated between the thumb and the finger;
A. Couplan elevator
B. Hospital pattern elevator
C. Winter’s elevator
D. Warwick-james elevator
78. The COW HORN forceps is designed especially for use on;
A. Lower central
B. Mandibular molars
C. Maxillary molars
D. Bifurcated upper premolars
79. Most important purpose during extraction;
A. Least trauma to bone while extracting whole tooth out
B. Least trauma to mucosa while extracting the whole tooth out
C. Least trauma to both bone and mucosa while extracting the tooth in pieces
D. None of the above
80. The elevator can be used to advantage when;
A. The tooth to be extracted is isolated
B. The interdental bone is used as a fulcrum
C. The adjacent tooth is not be extracted
D. Multiple adjacent teeth are to be extracted
81. In Winter’s WAR line, amber line represents the;
A. Relative depth of III molar
B. Point of application of elevator
C. Bone level covering the impacted tooth
D. Axial inclination of the impacted tooth relative to the II molar.
82. The easiest impaction of mandibular molars is?
A. Mesioangular
B. Distoangular
C. Vertical
D. Hortizontal
83. 25-year healthy patient require extraction of grossly decayed third molar, the treatment indicated is;
A. Extraction of tooth without any need of medication
B. Extraction of tooth under antibiotic cover
C. Extraction under antibiotic cover and analgesics
D. None
84. Treatment of localized pain 3-4 days post extraction due to loss of clot is done by;
A. Irrigation of the socket and placement of sedative dressing
B. Curettage of the socket
C. Creation of new blood clot
D. Placement of analgesics and antibiotics directly in the socket
85. Amber line of the WAR line indicate;
A. Corresponding to the occlusal plane
B. Denotes the alveolar bone covering the impacted tooth and portion not covered by bone
C. The depth of the tooth in the bone
D. None
86. The least difficult impaction to remove surgically is;
A. Vertical
B. Mesioangular
C. Distoangular
D. Horizontal
87. The most common reason for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars;
A. Referred pain
B. Orthodontic treatment
C. Recurrent pericoronitis
D. Chronic periodontal disease
88. The elevators used in exodontia are functionally;
A. Class I levers only
B. Class I and II lever
C. Class III levers onl
D. Only wedge-shaped
89. Elevators shouldn’t be used to remove palatal root of:
A. Upper incisor
B. Upper canine
C. Upper premolar
D. Upper molar
90. Which of the following is expected when the tooth lost:
A. Decrease in trabecular pattern
B. Loss of bone width
C. Loss of bone height
D. All of the above
91. White line described by George Winter is a line draw;
A. Along occlusal surfaces of erupted mandibular molars extending to impacted third molar region
B. From crest of bone lying distal to third molar to crest of the interdental septum between 1st and 2nd molar
C. From perpendicular to ‘amber line’
D. From perpendicular to ‘red line’
92. Red line as described by George Winter is demarcated as a line;
A. Drawn from bone distal to third molar to crest of the interdental septum between 1st and 2nd molar
B. Which is a perpendicular dropped from amber line to point of application of elevator
C. Which is a perpendicular dropped from white line to point of application of elevator
D. None of the above
93. The “Red line” in winter’s classification of impacted teeth represent:
A. The depth of impacted teeth
B. The angulation of 2nd molar
C. Relation of 3rd molar to ramus
D. The amount of alveolar bone covers the impacted molar.
94. Which nerve is near to mandibular third molar (medial aspect) and is likely to be damaged while removing third molar:
A. IAN
B. Massetric
C. Buccal
D. Lingual
95. If in a mesioangular mandibular impaction there is apical notch visible on a radiograph the tooth should:
A. Not be removed
B. Be removed by lingual split technique
C. Be removed by splitting the tooth
D. None of the above
96. Which type of mandibular impactions are most commonly associated with apical notch formation;
A. Mesioangular
B. Distoangular
C. Vertical
D. A and B
97. The disadvantage of lingual split technique is/are;
A. Injury to lingual nerve
B. Opening up of facial spaces of lingual side and floor of mouth
C. Chances of dislodging tooth or root in sublingual space
D. All of the above
98. The basic advantage of lingual split technique for extraction of mandibular impacted teeth is/are;
A. Bone loss is minimal
B. Easy and quick method
C. Tissue trauma is minimal
D. All of the above
99. Lateral trepanation technique of Bowdler Henry is indicated for;
A. Extraction of impacted canines
B. Removal of impacted premolars
C. Removal of partially formed unerupted third molars
D. Treating dentigerous cysts with enclosed third molars
100. Working end of crier elevator is placed at:
A. Junction of interseptal bone and mesiobuccal portion of root
B. Over the inter-radicular bone
C. Distobuccal root
D. Between the teeth and gingiva
101. The chisel should be used with;
A. Bevel towards the bone which is to be saved
B. Bevel towards the bone which is to be sacrificed
C. Bevel direction is not important
D. Flat surface parallel to direction of grains of bone
102. Dry socket commonly occurs after;
A. 24 hours
B. 2 days
C. 3-4 days
D. 10-15 days
103. Pain of dry socket is experienced on
A. 1st day after extraction
B. 2nd day after extraction
C. 3rd day after extraction
D. After 7 day
104.The treatment of localized osteitis is;
A. Debridement, curettage and sedative packing
B. Curettage, irrigation and sedative packing
C. Irrigation and sedative packing
D. None of the above
105.The complication of using air rotor at 30,000 rpm for impacted molars is;
A. Necrosis of bone
B. Dehiscence
C. Tissue laceration
D. Emphysema
106. Best treatment for pericoronitis associated with impacted mandibular third molar Is:
A. Irrigating under the operculu
B. Antibiotic and analgesic therapy
C. Extraction of impacted third molar
D. Operculectomy
107. The best example of an elevator which works on wheel and axle principle?
A. Howarth’s periosteal elevator
B. Winter cross bar elevator
C. Millers apexoelevator
D. None of the above
108. Impacted mandibular third molar classification is usually based on:
A. Relation of the tooth to the ramus of the mandible
B. The position of the tooth in relation to the long axis of the second molar
C. The relative depth of the third molar in bone
D. All the above
109. Ten teeth have been removed for a patient who was “j” pre-medicated. The proper position of the patient in the recovery room is:
A. Head elevation 30° with patient on his back
B. Trendelenburg’s position patient head is almost parallel to the floo
C. Reverse Trendelenburg’s position
D. Supine position
110. A swelling over lies an extraction wound and it crackles on palpation. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Ecchymosis
B. Cellulitis
C. Emphysema
D. Empyema
111. During the extraction of maxillary first molar, the palatal root tip of molar slipped into the maxillary sinus. Proper way to apprach to recovery Is through the:
A. Same socket by enlarging the opening through which the root entered the sinus
B. Maxillary incisive fossa
C. Maxillary incisive fossa medial to canine
D. Lateral nasal wall in the middle meatus of the nose
112. A mandibular left second molar is unerupted in a 14- year-old boy. Radiological examination reveals a dentigerous cyst surrounding the unerupted tooth. The treatment of choice is:
A. Observe for at least 2 years
B. Aspirate and send the contents of the cyst to biochemical analysis
C. Uncover the crown and keep it exposed
D. Extract the tooth under local anesthesia
113. The prime purpose of Bibevel chisel is:
A. Split teeth
B. Sharpen the angles
C. Remove bone
D. Engage point establishment
114. The maxillary first molar is extracted by forceps method. The healing of the socket can be described as:
A. Healing by primary intention
B. Granulomatosis
C. Healing by secondary intention
D. Epithelialization
115. A mandibular second molar is extracted. It is found that the distal root is fractured and the tip is missing. When the dentist att.empts to recover it and finds that his instrument will pass downward and into the lingual soft tissue, the tip is most likely to be in the:
A. Submental space
B. Sublingual space above the mylohyoid muscle
C. Submandibular space below the mylohyoid muscle
D. Parapharyngeal space
116. 48-72 hours after extraction patient developed fever. The problem may result from:
A. Wound infection
B. Endocarditis
C. Cellulitis
D. Any of the above are corrected
117. Wilkinson extractions are:
A. A type of extractions done with wilkinson elevator
B. Done in order to permit eruption of 3rd molars in the proper position
C. Usually done in the patients above 45 years
D. None of the above
118. The best time of extraction in pregnancy:
A. First trimester
B. Second trimester
C. Third trimester
D. None of the above
119. Extraction of which of one teeth is the most common cause of oro-antral fistula:
A. Maxillary canine
B. Maxillary 1st molar
C. Maxillary 2nd molar
D. Maxillary 3rd molar
120. “Dry socket” is also called as:
A. Acute osteomyelitis
B. Acute alveolar osteitis
C. Osteitis deformans
D. Chronic alveolitis
121. Rotational force of extraction is used for delivery of which tooth out of the socket?
A. Upper central incisors and lower premolars
B. Upper centrals and lateral incisors
C. Upper and lower central incisors
D. Upper premolars and lower central incisors
122. The straight elevator works on which principle:
A. Wedge principle
B. Wheel and axial principle
C. Lever and fulcrum
D. Apical force
123. The pathogenesis of dry socket was put by:
A. Kelly
B. Bell’s
C. Birn
D. Hilton
124. The common organism implicated in dry socket:
A. Streptococcu
B. Staphylococcus
C. Treponema denticola
D. Pneumococcus
125. The current concept in treatment of extraction socket is:
A. Non compression
B. Use of compression
C. Use of bone graft
D. Removal of inter-radicular bone
126. Which of the following can be used for removing bone?
A. Rongeur forceps
B. Chisel and mallet
C. Bone file
D. Bur and handpiece
E. All of the above
127. Which of the following is not indication for teeth extraction?
A. Severe periodontal disease.
B. Supernumerary teeth.
C. Teeth associated with pathology.
D. Severe pericoronitis.
E. Prebisphosphonate therapy
128. During removal of impacted mandibular third molar , bone is removed up to beyond :
A. Height of contour of crown.
B. Cementoenamel junction.
C. Furcation area.
D. Half of roots.
129. The most common reason of impacted maxillary canine is :
A. Rotation of toothbud .
B. Premature loss of deciduous tooth .
C. Ankylosis of developing tooth germ .
D. Progeria.
130. Submerged tooth is commonly :
A. Permanent mandibular third molar .
B. Permanent maxillary canine
C. Deciduous mandibular second molar .
D. Deciduous maxillary canine.
131. Impacted mandibular third molar is classified according to its :
A. Depth in the alveolar bone .
B. Position to long axis of second molar .
C. Relation to mandibular ramus .
D. All of Above
132. Most difficult mandibular third molar impaction to remove is
A. Horizontal .
B. Distoangular .
C. Vertical .
D. Mesioangular
133. A dentist planning to remove an impacted tooth will need which of the following radiographes:
A. A periapical film will be all that is required.
B. A lateral-view film will be of little or no use
C. A bite-wing film will be all that is required.
D. An anterioposterior view will be all that is required.
134. Following the removal of impacted tooth , patient developed slight edema , the patient should be instructed to :
A. Apply ice on the skin only .
B. Do warm water rinses only .
C. Do warm applications both outside and inside the mouth .
D. Apply intraoral hot applications and ice on the skin.
135. Asymptomatic impacted teeth could be left without removal in :
A. Surgically risk patients with advanced systemic disease .
B. Advanced age .
C. If they attain a very deep position .
D. All of above.
136. The most common complication of impacted mandibular third molar is :
A. Neuralgia .
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Pericoronitis
137. Commonly encountered complication during extraction of maxillary third molar is:
A. Oro-antral communication
B. Root displacement into sinus
C. Hemorrhage
D. Fracture of maxillary tuberosity
138. Commonest complication after removal of impacted mandibular 3rd molar is:
A. Lingual nerve damage
B. Dry socket
C. Fracture of mandible
D. Bleeding
139. The prevalence of impacted teeth is :
A. Higher than before .
B. Lower than before .
C. Constant .
D. Doubles every one century .
140.Impacted maxillary canine located in the palate is :
A. Class I .
B. Class II .
C. Class III .
D. Class IV .
141. Impacted teeth should be removed to prevent :
A. Cyst formation .
B. Infection .
C. Pain .
D. All of above
142. When the impacted maxillary canine is located in the alveolus it is considered :
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
143. The most common cause of impacted teeth is :
A. Lack of space due to crowding.
B. Rotation of the tooth buds.
C. Premature loss of deciduous teeth .
D. Ankylosis of the developing tooth germ .
144. Submerged teeth are commonly :
A. Deciduous mandibular second molars .
B. Deciduous maxillary canines .
C. Permanent maxillary canines .
D. Permanent mandibular third molars .
145. The primary objective of removing bone when extracting impacted teeth is to :
A. Expose the root bifurcation
B. Expose the cervical line
C. Allow proper closure of the wound
D. Expose the height of contour of the tooth
146. The earliest step in healing of an impacted tooth socket is the:
A. Proliferation of endothelial cells
B. Osteoclastic activity at the crest of alveolar bone
C. Covering of the surface of the blood clot by a thin layer of fibrin
D. Proliferation of epithelium at the periphery of the wound .
147. Which of the following may suggest that a tooth will be difficult to remove:
A. Sharp cusps.
B. Extra cusps
C. Dilacerated roots
D. Conical roots
148. The most commonly impacted tooth is :
A. Maxillary cuspid
B. Maxillary third molar
C. Mandibular third molar
D. Mandibular premolar .
149. Which of the following is not contraindication for teeth extraction?
A. Extraction of teeth in recently irradiated patients
B. Teeth that are located within an area of malignant tumor
C. Patients receiving bisphosphonates
D. Mild pericoronitis around an impacted mandibular third molar
150.Which of the following is False?
A. The most common complication of impacted mandibular third molar is pericoronitis.
B. In class ( i ) impacted maxillary cuspid , the tooth is located in the palate.
C. Impacted teeth should be removed because they are nuclei for cyst formation .
D. In class ( a ) impacted maxillary third molar , the tooth is located in the maxillary sinus
151. Which of the following is true ?
A. Class iii impacted mandibular third molar is easier to remove
B. Less difficult to remove
C. Difficult to remove
D. Great difficult to remove
152. The impacted maxillary third molar is classified according to the relative depth in the jaw bone into:
A. Class i , ii & iii
B. Class a , b & c
C. Class 1 , 2 & 3
153. Which of the following is true?
A. Ectopic tooth by definition is a tooth fused to alveolar bone
B. Tooth found in an abnormal position in the dental arch
C. Tooth erupting into abnormal position other than the dental arch
D. Tooth erupting at the apical region of adjacent tooth.
154. Sometimes the impacted mandibular third molar is removed through an extraoral submandibular approach , if the:
A. Impacted tooth is located at the lower border of the mandible
B. Impacted tooth is misplaced into the ramus
C. Impacted tooth is closely related to the mandibular canal
D. Impacted tooth is in level with the adjacent tooth .
155. A wider follicular sac makes the impacted tooth
A. Great difficult to remove
B. Difficult to remove
C. Easy to remove
D. Less easier to remove
156. Impacted maxillary canine is located in the labial region in
A. Class i
B. Class ii
C. Class iii
D. Class v
157. Impacted tooth is a tooth that
A. Prevented from eruption within the expected time
B. Fails to erupt due to lack of eruptive forc
C. Has not shed due to ankylosis
D. Erupts into abnormal situation other than the dental arch
158. On basis of adequate radiograph, impacted teeth are classified in order to determine the:
A. Difficulty of removal
B. Proposed approach for surgery
C. Expected postoperative complications
D. All of above
159. The impacted mandibular third molar is classified , with respect to long axis of 2nd molar into :
A. Mesioangular impaction
B. Class III impaction
C. Position A impaction
D. Class B impaction
160. Impacted maxillary third molar is classified with regard to relative depth into tuberosity to:
A. Class I , II , III
B. Position A , B , C
C. Class A , B , C
D. Sinus approximation & no sinus approximation
161. Position A impacted mandibular third molar is:
A. Easy to remove
B. Great difficult to remove
C. Difficult to remove
D. Less difficult to remove
162. When the impacted tooth is difficult to remove , the root width is:
A. Greater than the tooth width
B. Same as the tooth width
C. Lesser than the tooth width
D. Half of the tooth width
163. With regard to relative depth in the jaw bone , impacted mandibular third molar is classified into:
A. Class I , II , III
B. Position A , B , C
C. Class 1 , 2 , 3
D. Class A,B,C
164. The following is a useful tool for classification of impacted teeth:
A. MRI
B. Visual inspection
C. Radiograph
D. Computerized tomography
165. Which type of maxillary third molar impaction is most likely to be displaced into the antrum (maxillary sinus) and infratemporal space if correct extraction techniques are not employed?
A. Vertical impaction
B. Distoangular impaction
C. Mesioangular impaction
D. Horizontal impaction
166. Which of the following are local contraindications for tooth extractions?
A. ANUG
B. Irradiated jaws
C. Malignant disease
D. All of the above
167. Which of the following is the primary direction of luxation for extracting maxillary deciduous molars?
A. Buccal
B. Palatal
C. Mesial
D. Distal
168. When would you place a suture over a single extraction socket?
A. Routinely
B. Never
C. If the patient requests it
D. When there is severe bleeding from the gingiva or if the gingival cuff is torn or loose.
169. A patient with dry socket develops a severe dull throbbing pain:
A. Two to three hours following a tooth extraction
B. One day following a tooth extraction
C. Two to four days following a tooth extraction
D. Immediately following a tooth extraction
170. After extraction the patient should be instructed to:
A. Bite on the gauze for the first 6 hours.
B. Eat regular food for the first 24 hours
C. Rinse with saline for the first 24 hours
D. Avoid spitting during first 24 hours
171. For extraction of lower third molar it is prefer to use:
A. Lower molar forceps only
B. Forceps first then elevator
C. Elevator first then forceps
D. Straight elevator only
172. The most common liable tooth for fracture during extraction is:
A. Maxillary second molar
B. Maxillary first premolar
C. Mandibular first bicuspid
D. Mandibular second molar
173. Rotational movement is applied during extraction of:
A. Mandibular first molar
B. Maxillary first premolar
C. Maxillary central incisor
D. Maxillary third molar
174. The blades of extraction forceps do have serration on the:
A. Convex surface
B. Concave surface
C. Both surfaces
D. Beak of the blade
175. During extraction, the blade of the forceps should be applied.
A. On the buccal surface first
B. Along long axis of the tooth
C. More toward the mesial surface
D. To grip the crown of the tooth.
176. The main contraindicated movement during extraction of upper molar is:
A. Bucco–lingual
B. Rotation
C. Jerky
D. Apical
177. Alveolar process expansion is evaluated during extraction via
A. Tactile sensation
B. Visualization
C. Patient response
D. Ausculation
178. The forceps which characterized by closed identical beaks is:
A. Lower molar forceps
B. Upper premolar forceps
C. Lower premolar forceps
D. Lower anterior forceps
179. Apical pressure applied using dental forceps provides:
A. Bone expansion in the apical area
B. Displace’the’center’of’rotation’occlusally
C. Displace the center of rotation apically
D. Expansion of the buccal plate
180. The basic extraction movement of upper first premolar with severely destructed palatal wall will be:
A. Buccal first till luxation occurs, followed by palatal
B. Palatal first till luxation occurs followed by buccal.
C. Buccal movement only till delivery of the tooth
D. Palatal movement only till delivery of the tooth
181. Upper remaining root can be removed using:
A. Bayonet forceps.
B. Upper molar forceps
C. Upper premolar forceps
D. Upper anterior forceps
182. The rivet joint design of lower extraction forceps is:
A. Appropriate for the patient with small mouth opening
B. Appropriate for the patient with joint problem
C. Characterized by decreasing the force applied to the tooth
D. Characterized by increasing force applied to the tooth
183. A new bone fill the extraction socket within:
A. Two to three weeks
B. Two to three months
C. Four to five months
D. Six to eight months
184. After extraction and before placing the gauze into the socket the operator shouldn’t:
A. Irrigate the socket with saline
B. Check if there is root fracture
C. Evaluate the need for suture
D. Give instruction to the patient
185. Squeezing of the socket is contraindicated in case of:
A. Acute infection.
B. Orthodontic purpose
C. Chronic infection
D. Patient health issue
186. The buccal bone is thicker than the lingual bone in:
A. Lower central incisor
B. Lower first premolar.
C. Lower second molar
D. Upper first molar
187. During extraction of the upper second premolar the operator should consider
A. The tooth relation to the max sinus
B. It is the most liable tooth for fracture
C. Buccal bone fracture is the most common
D. Heavy buccal alveolar bone coverage
188. Which is not considerd a reason for root breakage:
A. Use of wrong forceps
B. Using of twist or pulling force
C. Osteoprsis (marble bone disease)
D. Blade are parallel to wrong axis of the tooth.
189. Slight traction force could be applied during extraction:
A. Before luxation
B. After luxation
C. After apical pressure
D. Before apical grip
190. The mucoperiosteal elevator has NO benefit in:
A. Luxation of the tooth during extraction
B. Proper adaptation of the forceps blade
C. Test the profoundness of the anesthesia
D. Sever the gingival connection to the tooth
191. The mechanical principle of tooth extraction is:
A. Moving the tooth in the path of maximum resistance
B. Expanding of the bony alveolar plates (sockets)
C. Avoiding important anatomical structure
192. The mandibular occlusal plane during extrarction of the lower third molar should be:
A. At the level of the operator elbows.
B. At the level of the operator shoulder
C. Below the level of operator elbow
D. Above level of operator shoulder
193. Impacted canine:
A. Most likely to be ankylosed
B. They may damage roots of other teeth
C. Good function is impossible without them
D. They will not erupt until root formation is complete
194. The most common tooth to be extracted (excluding the 3rd molars):
A. Maxillary canine
B. Mandibular canine
C. Maxillary 2nd premolar
D. Mandibular 2nd premolar
195. Which is the best treatment for pericoronitis involving an impacted third molar?
A. Antibiotic and analgesic therapy
B. Operculectomy
C. Extraction of the involved third molar
D. Gentle application of heat and cold simultaneously
196. The difficulty score for vertically impacted mandibular third molar, Class II and Position B is:
A. 7
B. 5
C. 10
D. 6
197. When the impacted tooth is very close to a vital structure , it is:
A. Easy to remove
B. Difficult to remove
C. Less difficult to remove
D. Great difficult to remove
198. Ectopic tooth is a tooth that:
A. Does not attain its date of eruption yet
B. Fails to erupt due to lack of eruptive force
C. Situated in an abnormal position in the dental arch
D. Found in an abnormal situation other than the dental arch
199. The following is unavoidable cause of impacted teeth:
A. Evolutionary reduction of the dental arch
B. Anemia
C. Malnutrition
D. Rickets
200. The following is special reason of impacted maxillary canine:
A. Fully formed root at the time of eruption
B. Cleft palate
C. Cleidocranial dysostosis
D. Oxycephaly
