Oral Medicine and Pathology MCQs

Diseases of Bones & Joints MCQs

Diseases of Bones & Joints MCQs

Diseases of Bones & Joints MCQs

Diseases of Bones & Joints MCQs

  1. Which of the following are characteristic feature of cherubism:
    A. Premature exfoliation of primary teeth
    B. Hypoplastic defects
    C. Progressive painless symmetric
    D. A + C
  2. Precocious puberty is most characteristic of which of the following:
    A. Jaffe’s syndrome
    B. Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
    C. Abright’s syndrome
    D. Osteogenesi imperfecta
  3. Serum alkaline phosphatase levels are increased in:
    A. Osteorthritis
    B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
    C. Paget’s disease
    D. Rheumatoid arthitis
  4. Which of the following are a triad of the sign and symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta :
    A. blue sclera, sparse hair, anhydrosis
    B. enlarged hand, feet, maxilla, mandible
    C. Blue sclera, brittle bones opalescent dentin
    D. blue sclera, arachnodactyly, brittle bones
  5. Generalised thickening of cortical and cancellous bones is seen in:
    A. Osteopetrsis
    B. Pagets disease
    C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
    D. Infantile hyperostosis
  6. Cotton-wool appearance is seen in:
    A. Peget’s disease
    B. Osteoclerosis
    C. Pariapical cemential dysplasia
    D. Ossifying fibroma
  7. Generalised hyper cementesis is seen in:
    A. Hypophosphatasia
    B. Pagets disease
    C. Fibrous dysplasia
    D. Cherubism
  8. Class III malocclusion is seen in all of the following except:
    A. pierre robinson syndrome
    B. Cleft palate
    C. Cleidocranial dysplasia
    D. Craniofacial dysostosis
  9. Delayed eruption of teeth occurs in:
    A. Craniofacial dysostosis
    B. Hyperthyroidism
    C. Cleidocranial dysostosis
    D. Osteitis deformans
  10. False about cherubism:
    A. Unilocular lesion
    B. Bilateral
    C. Presence of Giant cell
    D. Delayed eruption of permanent teeth
  11. The histopathology of osteopetrosis shows:
    A. Endosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption
    B. Periosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption
    C. Persence of extra collagen fibres and less calcification resulting in resistance of bones to fracture
    D. Presence of numerous osteoclasts and a few osteoblasts
  12. Multiple fractures are seen in:
    A. Rickets
    B. Osteogenesis imperfecta
    C. Osteomyelitis
    D. Osteoma
  13. IN MPDS which muscle is most apt to exhibit tenderness:
    A. Temporalis
    B. Buccinator
    C. Masseter
    D. Lateral pterygoid
  14. Orange peel and Ground glass radiographic appearance is observed in case of:
    A. Pagets disease
    B. Weing’s sarcoma
    C. Osteosarcoma
    D. Fibrous dysplasia
  15. Delayed dentition with multiple supernumerary teeth is seen in:
    A. Hypoparathyroidism
    B. Cleidocranial dysplasia
    C. Pierre Robin Syndrome
    D. Mongolism (Down’s Syndrome)
  16. Mosaic pattern of bone is seen in radiographic features of:
    A. fibrous dysplasia
    B. paget’s disease
    C. Osteopetrosis
    D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
  17. The most common complication following rheumatold arthritis of the TMJ is:
    A. Ankylosis
    B. Synovial chondromatosis
    C. Subluxation
    D. Osteorthritis
  18. Which of the following statement is false in relation to myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome:
    A. Maily affects young females
    B. is caused by muscle fatigue due to chronic oral habits are grinding and clenching
    C. Treatment involves construction of occlusal guard and stress free emotional condition
    D. The perioral musculature becomes hypotonic
  19. A child with Down’s syndrome has Moon faces, retarded mentally and which of the facial characteristic:
    A. Maxillary prognathism
    B. Mandibular retrognathia
    C. Mandibular prognathism
    D. Maxillary hypoplasia
  20. Ground glass appearance in bone is seen in:
    A. Hyper parathyroidism
    B. Fibrous dysplasia
    C. Condensing osteitis
    D. Osteopetrosis
  21. A non-neoplastic hereditary bone lesion, histologically similar to central giant cell granuloma affects children and shows, a bilateral involvement of the jaws with eye to heaven appearance clinically is:
    A. Fibrous dysplasia
    B. Cherubism
    C. Craniofacial dysostosis
    D. Chondro-ectodermal dysplasia
  22. Treacher Collins syndrome is:
    A. Maxillofacial Dysostosis
    B. Mandibulofacial Dysostosis
    C. Maxillomandibulofacial Dysostosis
    D. Condylar Dysostosis
  23. Osteosclerosis of bone occurs due to:
    A. Decreased host resistance
    B. Increase in the virulence of organisms causes infection
    C. Increased host response
    D. Occurs in immunocompromised patients
  24. Venous malformation involving the leptomeninges of the cerebral cortex is salient feature of:
    A. Rendu-Osler-Weber disease
    B. Maffuci’s syndrome
    C. Angioosteohypertrophy syndrome
    D. Sturge weber syndrome
  25. Preauricular pain, grating sensation and partial trismus are the symptons of:
    A. TMJ fibrous ankylosis
    B. TMJ bony ankylosis
    C. TMJ pain dysfurction symdnome
    D. Ear infection
  26. Polydactyly, craniosynostosis, late closure of fontanelles is a feature of:
    A. Apert’s syndrome
    B. Crouzon’s syndrome
    C. Pierre robin syndrome
    D. Down syndrome
  27. Osteosarcoma characteristically may develop in some causes of:
    A. Osteopetrosis
    B. Osteogenesis imperfecta
    C. Acromegaly
    D. Osteitis deformans
  28. Histopathologically reversal lines are seen in:
    A. Cherubism
    B. Fibrous dysplasia
    C. Paget’s disease of the bone
    D. Craniofacial dysplasia
  29. Most common primary malignant bone tumor is:
    A. Osteosarcoma
    B. Ewing sarcoma
    C. Metastatic carcinoma
    D. Multiple Myeloma
  30. Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of Pierre-Robin syndrome?
    A. Micrognathia
    B. Retrognathia
    C. Glossoptosis
    D. Coloboma of lower eyelid
  31. Eruption fails in this bone disease, as there is no bone resorption: 
    A. Primary hyperparathyroidism
    B. Phantom bone disease
    C. Paget’s disease
    D. Osteopetrosis
  32. Mutation in GNAS 1 gene is associated with:
    A. Fibrous dysplasia
    B. Ossifying fibroma
    C. Focal cementoosseous dysplasia
    D. Periapical cementoosseous dysplasia
  33. The granulomatous tissue that is responsible for destruction of articular surfaces of TMJ in rheumatoid arthritis is known as:
    A. Pannus
    B. Pulse granuloma
    C. Baker’s cyst
    D. Immune granuloma
  34. A patient aged 50 years presented with a history of jaw expansion and enlargement of maxilla:
    A. paget’s disease
    B. Acromegaly
    C. Fibrous dysplasia
    D. Hyperparathyroidism
  35. Paget’s disease of bone is a chronic disease of the:
    A. Prepubertal skeleton
    B. Pubertal skeleton
    C. Infantile skeleton
    D. Adult skeleton
  36. A 15 years old boy reports with a rapidly growing swelling of the mandible with intermittent pain patient history is that the swelling occurred after an episode of trauma Radiographs reveal formation of new subperiosteal bone producing Onion skin appearance The patient also has lip paresthesia elevated white blood cell count Based on the clinical and radiographic picture, one of the following condition could be considered in the provisional diagnosis:
    A. Fracture of the jaw with cancellous bone formation
    B. Chronic suppurative osteomyelitis
    C. Burkitt’s Lymphoma
    D. Ewing’s sarcoma
  37. Transformation into osteosarcoma is seen with:
    A. pagets disease and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
    B. pagets disease and osteopetrosis
    C. Cherubism and Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
    D. Cherubism and pagets disease
  38. In a 60 year old adult, which of the following diseases causes expansile maxillary lesions:
    A. Paget’s disease
    B. Acromegaly
    C. Fibrous Dysplasia
    D. Rickets
  39. A patient with fibrous dysplasia can be treated by:
    A. Surgical excision
    B. Removal of adjacent teeth
    C. Irradiation of the lesion
    D. Conservative surgery
  40. The most likely diagnosis in a 23 year old, mentally alert, male dwarf with disproportionate arm and leg to body growth, prominent forehead and retruded maxilla is:
    A. Cretinism
    B. Pituitary dwarfism
    C. Acromegaly
    D. Achondroplasia
  41. In Cleidorcranial dysostosis, sometimes the roots of the permanent teeth are:
    A. Thin and long
    B. thin and short
    C. Thick and short
    D. Fused
  42. A patient 18 years of age with sebaceous cysts on the scalp and back of the neck an osteroma on the right mandible: Radiographs reveal multiple impacted supernumerary teeth in both jaws. These findings suggest:
    A. Cleidocranial dysostosis
    B. Ectodermal dysplasia
    C. Gardner’s syndrome
    D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
  43. During a routine checkup a 70 year old male is found to have Serum Alkaline Phosphatase three time the upper limit of normal. Serum Calcium, Serum Phosphorous and liver function tests are normal. The most likely diagnosis is:
    A. Primary hyperparathyroidism
    B. Paget’s disease of the bone
    C. Osteomalacia
    D. Metastatic bone disease
  44. Immature bony trabeculae are found in:
    A. Fibrous dysplasia
    B. Paget’s disease
    C. Rickets
    D. Cleidocranial Dysplasia
  45. Albera-Schonberg’s disease is:
    A. steomyelitis
    B. Osteopetrosis
    C. condensing osteitis
    D. Osteomalacia
  46. Pain, muscle tenderness, clicking or popping noise in T.M joint and limitation of jaw motion are the four cardinal signs and symptoms of:
    A. Costen’s syndrome
    B. Traumatic arthritis of T.M J
    C. Ostearthritis
    D. Myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome
  47. A 10-years-old child presents with anemia and recurrent fractures. The X-ray shows diffuse hyper density of bone The diagnosis is most likely to be:
    A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
    B. Osteopetrosis
    C. Osteochondroma
    D. Hyperparathyroidism
  48. Corticosteroids are useful in treatment of TMJ arthritis because they have:
    A. An analgesic effects
    B. An anti-inflammatory effect
    C. Inhibitory effect on synovial membrane
    D. Analgesic and anti-inflammatory effect
  49. A patient with multiple impacted supernumerary teeth and can bring his shoulders together is suffering from:
    A. Klinefelter’s syndrome
    B. Trisomy 21
    C. Down’s syndrome
    D. Cleidocranial dysostosis
  50. Amber coloured tooth translucency, blue sclerae and bone fragility and a history of pervious bone fractures are characteristic findings in:
    A. Osteoporosis
    B. Osteogenesis imperfecta
    C. Osteitis deformans
    D. Osteitis fibrosa cystic
  51. A patient complains of loss of visual acuity, deafness and enlargement of maxilla:
    A. Paget’s disease
    B. Osteomalacia
    C. Fibrous dysplaisa
    D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
  52. The treatment for a child with cherubism is:
    A. surgical excision
    B. cosmetic surgery after puberty
    C. radiation
    D. Enbloc dissection
  53. Biochemical abnormality associated with osteogenesis imperfecta is increase in:
    A. Alkaline phosphatase
    B. Acid phosphatase
    C. Bicarbonate ion
    D. Phosphorylase enzyme
  54. Of the following which is most common disorder causing pain about the masticatory apparatus including the TMJ:
    A. Traumatic arthritis
    B. Trigeminal neuralgia
    C. Myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome
    D. Degenerative arthritis
  55. Complication of Rheumatoid arthritis of condyle is:
    A. Fibrous ankylosis
    B. Subluxation
    C. Dislocation
    D. None of the above
  56. Alkaline phosphatase increases in:
    A. Pagets disease
    B. Osteopetrosis
    C. Cherubism
    D. Fibrous dysplasia
    E. A and D
  57. The most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is:
    A. Trauma
    B. Osteoarthritis
    C. Childhood illness
    D. Rheumatoid arthritis
  58. Down’s syndrome is associated with all except:
    A. Retrognathia
    B. Periodontal disease
    C. Premature loss off deciduous teeth
    D. Delayed eruption of deciduous teeth
  59. The primary causative factor for myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome of the TMJ is:
    A. Infratemporal space infection
    B. Auriculotemporal neuritis
    C. Muscular overextension and over contraction
    D. Otitis media
  60. A 3-year old patient reports of painless progressive bilateral facial swellings. The tentative diagnosis is:
    A. Cherubism
    B. Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
    C. Ployostotic fibrous dysplasia
    D. Central giant cell granuloma
  61. Clavicle is absent is:
    A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
    B. Cleidocranial dysostosis
    C. Fibrous dysplasia
    D. Osteopetrosis
  62. In a middle – aged man the radiograph shows cotton-wool appearance and blood investigation reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. The tentative diagnosis is:
    A. Paget’s disease
    B. Cherubism
    C. Fibrous dysplasia
    D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
  63. Which of the following has the potential of undergoing Spontaneous malignant transformation?
    A. Osteomalacia
    B. Albright’s syndrome
    C. Paget’s disease of bone
    D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
  64. Which of the following diseases of the bone characteristically exhibits (in contrast to the other three conditions) a single lesion in a single bone?
    A. Central giant cell granuloma
    B. Osteopetrosis
    C. Paget’s disease of the bone
    D. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
  65. Osteogenesis imperfect:
    A. In a sex-linked disorder of bones that develop that develop in cartilage
    B. manifests with blue sclera which are pathognomonic of this diease
    C. May be associated with deafness
    D. Has associations with amelogenesis imperfecta
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