Dental Decks in Orthodontics (Orthodontics MCQs)
Dental Decks in Orthodontics (Orthodontics MCQs)
1. All of the following are advantages of the indirect method of bonding brackets to a tooth over the direct method EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION:
A. Reduced chair-side time
B. More precise location of brackets possible in the laboratory
C. Controlled thickness of the resin between the tooth and the bracket interface
D. Less technique sensitive
E. Easier clean-up during bonding and de-bonding
F. Better visualization in lab (especially for lingual brackets)
2. Which of the following are considered functional appliances?A. Frankel
B. Bionator
C. Dark’s twin block
D. Herbst
E. Activator
F. All of the Above
3. A headgear appliance is used for:
A. Anchorage
B. Traction
C. Both anchorage and traction
D. Neither anchorage or traction
4. Which of the following are removable functional orthodontic appliances?
A. Lingual archwires
B. Whip-spring appliances
C. Palate-separating devices
D. Frankel’s appliances
E. Edgewise mechanisms
F. Light-wire appliances
5. Which of the following materials are archwires commonly made of?
A. Stainless steel
B. Beta titanium (titanium-molybdenum alloy)
C. Nickel-titanium
D. All of the Above
6. Which appliance is probably the most widely used today by orthodontists?
A. The begg appliance
B. The edgewise appliance
C. The universal appliance
D. None of the above
7. An active finger spring of a removable appliance usually touches the tooth with a point contact. What is the most likely type of tooth movement produced in this situation?
A. Tipping
B. Extrusion
C. Intrusion
D. Translation
8. Prior to direct bonding, …………….. is used as an etching agent. Prior to placing bands, …………………. is used as an etching agent.
A. Nothing; 35-50% unbuffered phosphoric acid
B. 35-50% unbuffered phosphoric acid; nothing
C. Nothing; 10-15% unbuffered phosphoric acid
D. 10-15% unbuffered phosphoric acid; nothing
9. Which of the following may cause extrusion of the maxillary first molars which can cause an open bite?
A. Straight-pull headgear
B. Reverse-pull headgear
C. Cervical-pull headgear
D. High-pull headgear
10. Which condition is appropriately treated at an early age?
A. Deviated midline in the absence of a functional shift
B. Mild crowding of lower permanent incisors
C. Two deciduous molars nearly in crossbite
D. Posterior crossbite with a functional shift
11. Displaced teeth related to functional shifts occur in which of the following situations?
Select all that apply.
A. Posterior crossbite after prolonged thumb sucking
B. Class II, division I malocclusion
C. Anterior crossbite in mildly prognathic children
D. An anterior open bite after prolonged thumb sucking
E. A and C
12. 1. Maxillary expansion is often done to correct crossbites
2. Tongue thrusting often causes crossbite.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the statement is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
13. An anterior crossbite should be corrected as soon as it is detected, because it is difficult to retain the corrected occlusion.
A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
E. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct
14. Which of the following are not classic symptoms of a sucking habit?
A. Anterior open bite
B. Crossbite
C. Expanded maxillary arch
D. Proclination of the maxillary incisors
E. Retroclination of the mandibular incisors
F. A Class II malocclusion
15. A patient’s SNA angle is 78°. The SNB angle is 76°. This tells us that the maxilla is ……………… , the mandible is ………………… , and the skeletal profile is …………….. .
A. Retrognathic; prognathic; class III
B. Prognathic; prognathic; class I
C. Retrognathic; retrognathic; class I
D. Prognathic; prognathic; class II
E. Retrognathic; retrognathic; class II
F. prognathic; retrognathic; class II
16. A “Poor man’s Cephalometric Analysis” is performed via a:
A. Dental cast analysis
B. Facial profile analysis
C. Photographic analysis
D. Full face analysis
17. Which of the following correlate with a steep mandibular plane?
A. Long anterior facial vertical dimension
B. Anterior open bite
C. Tendency toward a Class III malocclusion
D. Greater maxillary-mandibular plane angle
18. What is needed so that soft tissues are clearly visible on a lateral cephalometric radiograph?
A. Adjustment in kilovoltage
B. Adjustment in milliamperage
C. A soft tissue shield
D. A hard tissue shield
E. Nothing must be done to make soft tissues visible
19. In predicting the time of the pubertal growth spurt, while treating jaw malrelationships in a growing child, the orthodontist can get the most valuable information from:
A. Wrist-hand radiograph
B. Height-weight tables
C. Presence of secondary sex characteristics
D. Stage of dental development
20. During a serial extraction case, which teeth are NOT typically removed?
A. Primary canines
B. Primary first molars .
C. Permanent first premolars
D. Primary second molars
21. At age 9, young Jimmy needs his tooth #30 extracted due to caries. What is the proper space maintenance treatment?
A. Distal shoe on
B. Band and loop on
C. Removable partial denture
D. No space maintenance is needed
22. All of the following are types of tooth movement EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION:
A. Tipping
B. Translation
C. Pulling
D. Extrusion
E. Intrusion
F. Torque
G. Rotation
23. A post-orthodontic circumferential supracrestal fibrotomy is performed to sever collagen fibers, thus reducing the tendency of a rotated tooth to re lapse.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
24. Once bone is formed, it grows by:
A. Interstitial growth only
B. Appositional growth only
C. Both appositional and interstitial growth
D. Degenerative changes into bony structures
25. Cartilage differs from bone in that cartilage can increase in size by:
A. Apposition
B. Sutural expansion
C. Interstitial growth
D. Endosteal remodeling
26. The sole function of the alveolar process is to support the teeth, which is why it resorbs if a permanent tooth is extracted.
A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
E. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct
27. Bone deposition in the ………………… of the maxillary arch region is responsible for the lengthening:
A. Palate
B. Tuberosity
C. Incisor
D. Zygomatic
28. An 18-year-old patient presents back to you complaining of crowding of his lower anterior incisors. You explain that this is because of:
A. Late mandibular growth
B. pressure from third molars
C. maxillary tooth-size excess
D. trauma
E. an oral habit he must have
29. What percentage of 6-year-old children have a median (maxillary) diastema?
A. 78%
B. 98%
C. 49%
D. less than 25%
30. The length of the mandibular arch is longer than the maxillary arch. The difference is only about 2 mm.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
31. The most commonly impacted tooth is the mandibular canine. The longer a tooth has been impacted, the more likely it is to be ankylosed.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
32. If a permanent maxillary first molar has erupted ectopically against the distal root surface of a primary second molar, what would be the treatment of choice?(Treatment of the ectopic eruption of a permanent maxillary first molar consist of:)
A. Disking the distal of the primary first molar
B. An appliance incorporating a finger spring to move the primary second molar mesially
C. A brass wire placed between the primary second molar and permanent first molar
D. Extraction of the primary second molar
33. The time required to upright a molar can vary from:
A. 2-3 weeks
B. 1-2 months
C. 2-6 months
D. 6-12 months
E. 2-3 years
34. The time required to stabilize the molar can vary from:
A. 2-3 weeks
B. 1-2 months
C. 2-6 months
D. 6-12 months
E. 2-3 years
35. Which of the following is not sign of incipient malocclusion?
A. Lack of spacing in primary dentition
B. Crowding of permanent incisors in mixed dentition
C. Premature loss of mandibular primary canines
D. Larger than normal primary teeth
36. A patient presents to your office claiming that they have “Long Face Syndrome”. The man has obvious mouth breathing as noted by your morning patient who sat next to the man in the waiting room. What malocclusion are you immediately thinking that he has?
A. Dental open bite
B. Skeletal open bite
C. Dental cross bite
D. Skeletal cross bite
37. Which of the following factors are associated with chronic mouth breathing:
A. Narrow face
B. Narrow oropharyngeal space
C. Chronic rhinitis: inflammation of the mucous membranes of the nose
D. Chronic tonsillitis
E. Allergies
F. Deviated nasal septum
G. All of the Above
38. Angle’s Class I occlusion represents …… % of the population. Angle’s Class II occlusion represents ……. %. While Angle’s Class III occlusion represents the remainder.
A. 40; 55
B. 50; 45
C. 60; 35
D. 70; 25
39. What cephalometric analysis measurement is characteristic in Class I malocclusions?
A. SNA angle of > 84°
B. SNB angle of < 78°
C. ANB angle of < 4°
D. none of the above
40. What cephalometric analysis measurement is characteristic in maxillary prognathism?
A. SNA angle of > 84°
B. SNB angle of < 78°
C. ANB angle of < 4°
D. none of the above
41. What cephalometric analysis measurement is characteristic in mandibular retrognathism?
A. SNA angle of > 84°
B. SNB angle of < 78°
C. ANB angle of < 4°
D. none of the above
42. 1. A concave profile is associated with a Class III occlusion.
2. It is also termed a retrognathic profile.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
43. Which of the following terms can be used to describe a Class II malocclusion?
A. Retrognathism only
B. Overbite only
C. Underbite only
D. Overbite or retrognathism
E. Underbite or prognathism
44. Which of the following is the least common?
A. Class I malocclusion
B. Class II malocclusion
C. Class III malocclusion
D. Normal occlusion
45. The existence of a forward shift of the mandible during closure to avoid incisor interference is found in:
A. “True”class III malocclusions
B. “Pseudo”class III malocclusions
C. “Sunday bite”
D. All of the above
46. The most common cause of Class I malocclusion is:
A. An abnormal frenum
B. Uneven growth of the arches
C. Mandibular incisor crowding
D. Discrepancy between tooth size and supporting bone
47. Which of the following is not a generalized cause of failure of tooth eruption or delayed tooth eruption?
A. Hereditary gingival fibromatosis
B. Down syndrome
C. Rickets
D. Hyperparathyroidism
48. Which of the following statements regarding the effect of environ mental influences during growth and development of the face, jaws and teeth are true.
A. Patients who have excessive overbite or anterior open bite usually have posterior teeth that are infra- or supra-erupted respectively
B. Non-nutritive sucking habit leads to malocclusion only if it continues during the mixed dentition stage
C. Negative pressure created within the mouth during sucking is not considered a cause of constriction of the maxillary arch
D. “Adenoids” which lead to mouth breathing, cannot be indicted with certainty as an etiologic agent of a long-face pattern of malocclusion because studies show that the majority of the long-face population have no nasal obstruction
E. All of the Above
49. Which of the following statements are true?
A. In the maxillary arch, the primate space is located between the central incisors and lateral incisors
B. In the maxillary arch, the primate space is located between the lateral incisors and canines
C. In the mandibular arch, the primate space is located between the canines and first molars
D. In the mandibular arch, the primate space is located between the lateral incisors and canines
E. B and C
F. B and D
50. Primary molar relationships are known as:
A. Class relationships
B. Step relationships
C. Primitive relationships
D. Occlusion relationships
51. 1.Leeway space is a calculated difference between primary and permanent tooth size.
2. There is typically more leeway space in the maxillary arch.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
52. A periapical radiograph of primary tooth M shows tooth #22 overlapping half of the root. The patient is not in the chair, so you cannot palpate to determine on which side tooth #22 is erupting. What would you presume?
A. Tooth #22 is erupting distally
B. Tooth #22 is erupting mesially
C. Tooth #22 is erupting lingually
D. Tooth #22 is erupting facially
53. A 6-year-old patient and her mother present to your office. Her mom’s chief complaint is “My kid’s overbite makes her look like Bugs Bunny, her front teeth hide her lower lip.” What is wrong with the mom’s statement?
A. She is mixing up overbite and overjet
B. She is mixing up overbite and open bite
C. She is mixing up overbite and negative overjet
D. She is mixing up her cartoon characters
54. Which of the following teeth are required for a dentist to perform a Moyers’ mixed dentition analysis?
A. Mandibular first molars
B. Maxillary first molars
C. Mandibular incisors
D. Maxillary incisors
55. Which of the following is false concerning a mixed dentition analysis?
A. Analysis is done for each quadrant
B. It is used to predict the amount of crowding after the permanent teeth erupt
C. It determines space available vs. space required
D. the analysis is based on a correlation of tooth size
E. It is performed during the mixed dentition
F. It is performed with a boley gauge, study models and a prediction table
56. Which of the following is the normal relationship of the primary molars in the deciduous dentition?A. Distal step
B. Flush-terminal plane
C. Mesial step
D. None of the above
57. A situation where the distal surface of the mandibular primary second molar is located to the distal of the distal surface of maxillary primary second molar.
A. Distal step relationship
B. Flush-terminal plane
C. Mesial step
D. None of the above
58. The permanent mandibular canines erupt in what direction related to the primary mandibular canines:
A. Lingually
B. Facially
C. Distally
D. Mesilly
59. which of the following is defined by the difference in the sum of the Mesiodistal widths of the primary canine, first molar and second molar, and the permanent canine, first premolar and second premolar?
A. Primate space
B. Leeway space
C. Anatomic space
D. Moyer’s space
60. The mandibular leeway space averages:
A. 2-3 mm
B. 3-4 mm
C. 3.5-5 mm
D. 1.5-3 mm
60. The maxillary leeway space averages:A. 2-3 mm
B. 3-4 mm
C. 2-2.5 mm
D. 1.5-3 mm
61. Overbite is:
A. The horizontal projection of the maxillary anterior teeth beyond the mandibular anterior teeth.
B. The vertical overlapping of the maxillary anterior teeth over the mandibular anterior teeth.
C. Malocclusion in which the anterior teeth don’t close or come together.
D. a malocclusion where some of the maxillary teeth are inside of the mandibular teeth when they occlude
62. Overjet is:
A. The horizontal projection of the maxillary anterior teeth beyond the mandibular anterior teeth.(labial axial inclination of the maxillary incisors)
B. The vertical overlapping of the maxillary anterior teeth over the mandibular anterior teeth.
C. Malocclusion in which the anterior teeth don’t close or come together.
D. a malocclusion where some of the maxillary teeth are inside of the mandibular teeth when they occlude
63. A phase of dentition during which some of the teeth presents in the oral cavity are permanent and some are primary is referred to as:
A. Intermediate dentition
B. Succedaneous dentition
C. Mixed dentition
D. Non-succedaneous dentition
64. Which of the following is it true concerning a mixed dentition analysis:
A. It’s used to predict the amount of a crowding after the permanent teeth erupt
B. It determines the space available vs Space required
C. The analysis is based on a correction of tooth size
D. It is performed during the mixed dentition
E. It is performed with boley gauge, study models and the prediction table
F. All of the above are true.
65. Which space maintainer is most often used when the primary first smaller needs to be prematurely extracted:
A. “Band and loop” space maintainer
B. “Distal show” space maintainer
C. “Lingual arch” Appliance
D. Nancy Appliance
66. A 9 year old patient had an extraction of the primary mandibular first molar. The ideal treatment at this time is:
A. Place a fixed bridge
B. Place a space maintainer
C. Place a removal partial denture
D. do nothing and observe
E. Place an implant
67. An 8 year old child with a pulpally involved primary second molar tooth comes into your office. Which of the following ideally is the best approach to manage the case:
A. Prescribe antibiotic only
B. Treat the pulp and retain the the tooth as a space maintainer
C. Extract the tooth, space maintainer is not needed at this age
D. Extract the tooth and construct a “band and loop” space maintainer
E. Extract the tooth and construct a “distal show” space maintainer.
68. A contraindication for serial extraction is:
A. Class I skeletal pattern
B. Deep bite
C. Mixed dentition stage of dental development
D. Severe crowding
69. The most rapid losses in the A-B distance of the arch is usually due to:
A. Distal tipping and rotation of the permanent second molar after removal of the permanent third molar.
B. Mesial tipping and rotation of the permanent first molar after removal of the primary second molar.
C. Mesial tipping and rotation of the permanent canine after removal of the primary lateral incisor.
D. Distal tipping and rotation of the permanent second premolar after removal of the permanent first molar.
70. The displacement of a tooth from the socket in the direction of eruption is referred to as:
A. Translation
B. Extraction
C. Intrusion
D. Torque
E. Rotation
F. Tipping
71. The movement of the tooth into the socket along the long axis of the tooth and it is very difficult to accomplish, is referred to as:
A. Translation
B. Extraction
C. Intrusion
D. Torque
E. Rotation
F. Tipping
72. Revolving the tooth around its long axis, is referred to as:
A. Translation
B. Extraction
C. Intrusion
D. Torque
E. Rotation
F. Tipping
73. Coupled force is applied to the crown to control root movement in the same direction as a crown movement “force is applied through the tooth’s center of resistant” and it is very difficult to accomplish, (also called bodily movement):
A. Translation
B. Extraction
C. Intrusion
D. Torque
E. Rotation
F. Tipping
74. post orthodontic circumferential Supracrestal fibrotomy is most often performed in which situation?
A. An intruded mandibular second molar
B. A rotated maxillary lateral incisor
C. An extruded maxillary second premolar
D. A mandibular first molar that is in crossbite
75. then rationale for retention in orthodontic (accomplished with fixed or removal retainers) is to:
A. Allow for reorganization of the gingival and periodontal tissues.
B. Minimize changes and due to growth.
C. Maintain teeth in unstable conditions
D. All of the above
76. lateral cephalometric radiographs of a typical growing patient were taken several years apart, and superimposed on the anterior cranial base. The result showed that during a growth the maxilla and mandible move:
A. Download and backward
B. Downward and forward
C. Upward and backward
D. Upward and forward
77. Which of the following sutures are considered secondary or accommodating growth sites for the primary centers of the growth:
A. Frontomaxillary suture
B. Zygomaticotemporal suture
C. Pyramidal process of palatal bone
D. Alveolar process
E. All of the above
78. The flat bones of the skull and part of the clavicle are formed by:
A. Intramembranous ossification
B. Endochondral ossification
C. Erythropoiesis
D. Epiphyseal formation
79. Hyaline cartilage differs from bone in that hyaline cartilage may grow:
A. By appositional growth
B. By interstitial growth
C. Neither of the above
80. In a young child, which structure grows in height and length to accommodate the developing dentition?
A. The Ramus
B. The tuberosity
C. The condyles
D. The alveolar process
81. Bone deposition in the ………………………… region is responsible for the lengthening of the maxillary arch.
A. Palate
B. Tuberosity
C. Incisor
D. Zygomatic
82. Mandibular anterior crowding occurs in normal young adults as a result of:
A. Third molars
B. Late mandibular growth
C. Maxillary tooth-size excess
D. Trauma
83. In which direction do the permanent teeth move during eruption:
A. Mesially and occlusally.
B. Occlusally and buccally.
C. Buccally and mesially
D. Occlusally and lingually
84. The most commonly impacted teeth are:
A. Maxillary canines
B. Maxillary central incisors
C. Mandibular first premolars
D. Mandibular lateral incisors
85. Malocclusion is most often:
A. Caused by trauma
B. Acquired from a friend
C. Hereditary
D. Caused by antibiotic
E. Caused by Bad habits
86. Which of the following is sign of incipient malocclusion:
A. Lake of interdental spacing in the primary dentition.
B. Crowding of the permanent incisors in the mixed dentition.
C. Premature loss of the primary canines, particularly in the mandibular arch.
D. All of the above.
87. Which cusp of the maxillary first molar serves as a reference point in identifying Angle’s Class I,II and III occlusions?
A. Distobuccal
B. Mesiobuccal.
C. Mesiolingual
D. Distolingual
88. Class I dental malocclusion is usually associated with:
A. Orthognathic profile
B. Prognathic profile
C. Retrognathic profile
D. None of the above
89. Class III malocclusion is usually associated with:
A. Orthognathic profile
B. Prognathic profile
C. Retrognathic profile
D. None of the above
90. All of the following are extra oral components of the headgear except:
A. Chin cup
B. Neck strap
C. Face-bow
D. Head cap
