Removable Partial Denture MCQs

INTRODUCTION AND CLASSIFICATION

INTRODUCTION AND CLASSIFICATION

1. Class IV Kennedy Classification is
a) Bilateral edentulous area located posterior to the remaining natural teeth
b) Unilateral edentulous area located posterior to the remaining natural teeth
c) Unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth remaining both anterior to the remaining natural teeth and posterior to it
d) A single but bilateral (crossing the midline) edentulous area located anterior to the remaining natural teeth.

2. A distal extension partial denture receives its support.
a) From terminal abutments
b) Equally from abutments and the residual ridges
c) Mostly from residual ridge
d) Exclusively from residual ridge

3. The support for a removable partial denture is usually:
a) Tooth support
b) Mucosa support
c) Occlusal rest support
d) Tooth and mucosa support

4. The mandibular distal extension RPD extends up to
a) Full length of Retromolar pad
b) Anterior one third length of retromolar pad
c) Anterior 2/3 rd of Retromolar pad
d) None of above

5. Distal extension R.P.D. is
a) Both tissue and tooth borne
b) Tooth borne
c) Class III condition
d) Class IV condition

6. Bilateral edentulous area present posterior to the remaining teeth can be classified as Kennedy’s
a) Class I
b) Class II
c) Class III
d) Class IV

7. The Kennedy classification that is more suitable for an internal attachment is
a) Class 1
b) Class 2
c) Class 3
d) Class 4

8. If a third molar is absent and not to be replaced
a) It is not considered in the classification of partial dentures
b) It may or may not be considered
c) It is considered important for classification
d) None applies

9. The most widely used partial denture classification
a) Kennedy
b) Kennedy-Applegate
c) Cumberland
d) None of the above

10. RPD is indicated in all except
a) Long edentulous span
b) Multiple edentulous spaces
c) Excessive loss of alveolar bone
d) Distal abutment loss

11. The main advantage of RPD over FPD in replacing bilateral lost teeth is
a) Cross arch stabilization
b) Aesthetics
c) Less expensive
d) Comfort to the patient

12. The purpose of treatment removable partial denture
a) For convenience until a more definitive denture is rendered
b) To condition the soft issues that have been abused by ill-fitting prosthesis
c) Aiding the patient in making transition to a complete denture
d) To condition the patient to wear a removable restoration

13. Looseness seen in a recently delivered RPD is due to:
a) Deflective occlusal balancing
b) Passive clasp on abutment
c) Thin flange
d) Insufficient overlap on posterior teeth

14. The most important cause of failure of patient to wear RPD is due to:
a) Indifferent patient education
b) Faulty laboratory procedures
c) Poor framework design
d) Improper preliminary rehabilitative restorative procedures

15. Most important property of a RPD is:
a) Retention
b) Stability
c) Occlusion
d) Prevention of tooth migration

16. In examining the edentulous mouth of an aged patient wearing complete maxillary denture against six mandibular teeth, the dentist will see:
a) Cystic degeneration of the foramina of the anterior palatine nerve
b) Loss of osseous structure in the anterior maxilla
c) Flabby tissue in the posterior region
d) Decrease interocclusal distance

17. 3 weeks after insertion of distal extension partial denture, the patient reports to the dental clinic with complaint of sensitivity to chewing pressure. The most probable reason would be:
a) Improper occlusion
b) Abrasion of tooth by clasp
c) Wearing off the cement base
d) Passive retentive arm

18. A patient comes with all the lower premolars and first molar removed, should the second molars be removed why?
a) Yes, it will help in taking support from the ridge
b) No, 2nd molars will help in determining the vertical dimension
c) No, because for designing RPD, sound posterior tooth with good bony support should not be extracted
d) Yes, it will help in extending the denture to retromolar pad to have good retention

19. Main cause of failure of partial denture result from
a) Caries of the abutment
b) Resorption of the ridge
c) Interference with the function of the tongue
d) Fracture of metal frame work

20. The primary areas of support for the lower RPD are
a) Crest of the ridge
b) Buccal shelf region
c) Lingual slopes of the residual ridge
d) Both B and C

21. Factors influencing the support of a distal extension denture base by the residual ridge is
a) Quality of the residual ride
b) Type and accuracy of the impression registration
c) Occlusal load applied
d) All of the above

22. The True statement regarding support of the distal extension denture base is
a) It gains its support through the abutment and residual ridges
b) Tissues covering the residual ridge are 7-10 times more displaceable than the periodontal ligaments of abutment teeth
c) Support from the residual ridge becomes greater as the distance from the terminal abutment increases
d) All of the above

23. Horizontal rotational tendency is seen in a mandibular class I RPD to the patients left is resisted by the denture bases by
a) The lingual slope of the left alveolar ridge and the buccal slope of the right alveolar ridge
b) The lingual slope of the right alveolar ridge and buccal slope of the left alveolar ridge
c) By the lingual slope of the right and left alveolar ridge
d) By the buccal slope of the left and right alveolar ridge

24. For obtaining functional impression for RPD:
a) Teeth are recorded in anatomical form and ridge in functional form
b) Teeth are recorded in functional form and ridge in anatomical form
c) Teeth and ridge are recorded both in anatomical and functional form
d) None of the above

25. In a cast partial denture wearer, the stresses transferred to abutment teeth are decreased, if
a) Retentive arm of the clasp is less flexible
b) Edentulous span is long
c) Length of the clasp is increased
d) Clasp is active when placed on abutment teeth

26. Differences in displaceability of tissue covering the median palatal raphae and crest of residual ridges, unless provide for will
a) Cause a rocking of the maxillary denture
b) Cause impingement of palatal tissues by the major connector, with resulting soreness
c) Promote a lack of stability in the restoration
d) All of the above

27. Functional impressions of class I partial edentulous arches may be made by
a) Hindel method
b) Fluid wax impression method
c) Reline method
d) All of the above

28. RPD impression for a Kennedy class I and II case differ from the full denture impression in that
a) It is a mucostatic impression
b) It should be a functional impression
c) All of the above
d) None of the above

29. Holes placed in an individualized impression tray in the median palatal raphae area, incisive papilla area and other palatal areas serve the purpose of
a) Placing uniform pressure on palatal tissues by the impression material
b) Allows the escape of excess impression material thereby more nearly recording the palatal tissues in an anatomical form
c) Has no effect on the resultant quality of the impression
d) Causes the entrapment of air in the impression surface

30. Perforated trays are used with
a) Alginate impression material
b) Silicone impression material
c) Modeling compound
d) Impression waxes

31. Which of the following statement is true regarding hydrocolloids
a) Agar sets by physical change and the reaction is reversible
b) Alginate sets by chemical change and the change is irreversible
c) Entrapment of air is more with alginate than with agar impression
d) All of the above

32. Casts should be poured immediately into hydrocolloid impressions because
a) When exposed to air they rapidly lose water content, with resultant shrinkage
b) Cast material will flow more readily when being poured
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

33. When a hydrocolloid impression exhibits syneresis, it can be expected that
a) Exudate has accelerating effect on the setting reaction of the gypsum
b) Exudate has retarding effect on the setting reaction of gypsum
c) Results in chalky cast surface
d) Both B and C

34. A mucostatic impression for a prosthesis is taken for which of the following cases
a) Lower RPD with Kennedy I classification
b) Lower RPD with Kennedy II Classification
c) Upper RPD with Kennedy IV classification
d) Full upper and lower denture

35. Which type of RPD can best resist the forces, to which it is subjected?
a) Class I
b) Class II
c) Class III
d) Class IV

36. To prevent dislodgement of abutment in distal extension RPD, it is required to have a:
a) Positive denture – base tissue relationship
b) Stress breaker
c) Indirect retainer
d) Multiple clasping

37. Modification spaces are:
a) Spaces other than the original class
b) Space posterior to all teeth
c) Space anterior to all teeth
d) Additional space in class IV

38. According to the Kennedy’s classification the posterior unilateral edentulous space is:
a) Class I situation
b) Class II situation
c) Class III situation
d) None of the above

39. The lever action that occurs in distal extension partial dentures is
a) 1st – order lever
b) 2nd – order lever
c) 3rd – order lever
d) 4th – order lever

40. When designing a RPD for Kennedy Class-II arch, the clasp configuration usually employed is
a) Unilateral
b) Tripod
c) Bilateral
d) Quadrilateral

41. In mandibular cI-II with Kennedy modification I, with opposing maxillary dentition, which occlusion is preferred?
a) Group occlusion
b) Canine guided occlusion
c) Balanced occlusion
d) Either canine guided or group occlusion depending upon number of missing teeth

42. In Kennedy’s Classification the least common arch is
a) Class I
b) Class II
c) Class III
d) Class IV

43. Unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth both anterior and posterior to it represent Kennedy’s __ arch.
a) Class I
b) Class II
c) Class III
d) Class IV

44. Classification of partially edentulous arches
a) Should be universal accepted
b) Should serve as a guide to the type of design to be used
c) Should permit differentiation between tooth supported and tooth & tissue supported partial denture
d) All the above