Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery MCQs

Cleft Lip and Palate MCQs

Cleft Lip and Palate MCQs

Cleft Lip and Palate MCQs

Cleft Lip and Palate MCQs

  1. In a patient with incomplete cleft palate, whichof the following aspects is most likely to remainopen?
    A. The anterior aspect
    B. The middle aspect
    C. The posterior aspect
    D. The right aspect
  2. Which of the following is false in patients with cleft lip and palate?
    A. Dental abnormalities may include missing teeth
    B. Speech may be described as hypernasal
    C. There may be eustachian tube dysfunction
    D. Osseointegrated implants are contraindicated
  3. As the team dentist, you are approached by the mother of an 8-day-old baby girl. She is curious about the timing of cleft palate repair. What is the appropriate timing of treatment?
    A. Rule of tens. When the patient is at least 10 lbs, has 10 mg /dL of hemoglobin, and is at least 10 weeks of age
    B. The palate repair is usually performed between 9 and 18 months of age
    C. As soon as possible. Usually between the first week of life and 6 months
    D. It only has to be repaired if the baby develops problems with speech
  4. Which of the following would be most likely encountered in the preoperative examination of a patient with Treacher–Collins syndrome?
    A. Mental retardation
    B. Pulmonary hypertension
    C. Cleft palate
    D. Glossoptosis
  5. A right unilateral cleft lip is most likely to result from incomplete union between which of the following prominences?
    A. The frontonasal prominence to the lateral nasal prominence
    B. The frontonasal prominence to the medial nasal prominence
    C. The lateral nasal prominence to the maxillary prominence
    D. The lateral nasal prominence to the medial nasal prominence
    E. The medial nasal prominence to the maxillary nasal prominence
  6. How long should the consolidation period be for the alveolar cleft bone graft before the placement of an endosseous implant to replace the missing lateral incisor?
    A. 4 weeks
    B. 8 months
    C. 4 months
    D. 1 year
    E. 2 years
  7. A 15-year-old patient with cleft lip and palate will most likely require which of the following orthognathic procedures?
    A. Le Fort I maxillary advancement
    B. Le Fort I maxillary setback
    C. Le Fort III facial advancement
    D. Mandibular sagittal split osteotomy
    E. Mandibular subcondylar vertical ramus osteotomy
  8. A 6year-old boy has a submucous cleft palate, velopharyngeal insufficiency, learning disabilities, and cardiac anomalies. Examination shows a broad nose, malar flattening, epicanthal folds, retrognathia, and vertical maxillary excess. The most likely diagnosis is
    A. Down syndrome
    B. Pierre Robin sequence
    C. Stickler’s syndrome
    D. Van der Woude’s syndrome
    E. Velocardiofacial syndrome
  9. In a patient with a unilateral cleft lip and palate, eruption of which of the following teeth is most likely to be impaired?
    A. Canine, cleft side
    B. Canine, noncleft side
    C. Central incisor, cleft side
    D. Lateral incisor, cleft side
  10. A neonate with cleft palate has micrognathia, glossoptosis, and respiratory distress. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
    A. Cleft palate repair
    B. Intubation
    C. Prone positioning
    D. Tongue-lip adhesion
    E. Tracheotomy
  11. Which of the following is most likely to maximize the success of secondary bone grafting of alveolar clefts?
    A. Adequate drainage of the recipient site
    B. Age of the patient at the time of grafting
    C. Embryologic origin of the bone graft
    D. Rigid fixation of the bone graft
    E. Use of calvarial bone
  12. A 9-year-old boy has turribrachycephaly, midface hypoplasia, facial acne, and a high-arched palate with a submucosal cleft. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    A. Apert syndrome
    B. Crouzon syndrome
    C. Pfeiffer syndrome
    D. Saethre-Chotzen syndrome
    E. Van der Woude syndrome
  13. In order to perform bone grafting of an alveolar cleft, which of the following is the most appropriate incision to elevate and advance the gingiva?
    A. Elevation of the gingiva within the gingival sulcus in adult dentition and above the attached gingiva in deciduous dentition.
    B. Elevation of the gingiva within the gingival sulcus in deciduous dentition and above the attached gingiva in adult dentition.
    C. Elevation of the gingiva within the gingival sulcus in adult and deciduous dentition
    D. Elevation above the attached gingiva in adult and deciduous dentition
  14. In an 8-year-old boy who underwent repair of a unilateral cleft lip and palate in infancy, which of the following materials is most effective for grafting of the alveolar cleft?
    A. Cancellous iliac graft
    B. Cortical cancellous rib graft
    C. Cortical cranial graft
    D. Hydroxyapatite with osteogen
    E. Lyophilized bone
  15. During development, primary cleft palate occurs as a result of unsuccessful fusion of which of the following structures?
    A. Lateral palatine processes and median palatine process
    B. Maxillary prominence and lateral palatine process
    C. Maxillary prominence and mandibular prominence
    D. Medial nasal prominence and nasal septum
  16. A child who had a cleft palate repair in infancy is undergoing sphincter pharyngoplasty for management of velopharyngeal insufficiency. When performing this procedure, which of the following muscles is typically used to create the sphincter?
    A. Levator veli palatine
    B. Musculus uvulae
    C. Palatopharyngeus
    D. Salpingopharyngeus
    E.Tensor veli palatine
  17. Incidence of cleft palate is more in
    A. Male child
    B. Female child
    C. Equal in both
    D. Either equal or more in a male child
  18. What is the appropriate timing of cleft palate repair?
    A. Rule of tens. When the patient is at least 10lbs, has 10 mg /dL of hemoglobin, and is at least 10 weeks of age
    B. The palate repair is usually performed between 9 and 18 months of age
    C. As soon as possible. Usually between the first week of life and 6 months
    D. It only has to be repaired if the baby develops problems with speech
  19. Which of the following most likely encountered in preoperative examination of a patient with Treacher–Collins syndrome?
    A. Mental retardation
    B. Pulmonary hypertension
    C. Cleft palate
    D. Glossoptosis
  20. A unilateral cleft lip is most result from incomplete union between :
    A. The frontonasal prominence to the lateral nasal prominence
    B. The frontonasal prominence to the media nasal prominence
    C. The lateral nasal prominence to the maxillary prominence
    D. The lateral nasal prominence to the medial nasal prominence
    E. The medial nasal prominence to the maxillary nasal prominence
  21. A 22-year-old male patient with a right-side unilateral cleft lip and palate is referred for an alveolar cleft bone grafting procedure. He missing permanent right maxillary lateral incisor and all other permanent teeth have erupted. Orthodontic appliances aligned the arches, and space for replacement of right maxillary lateral incisor has been maintained. there is no supernumerary or impacted teeth present, and there is deficient in bone at the alveolar cleft site. A decision to graft the alveolar cleft site with autogenous iliac marrow is made .
    How long the period be for the alveolar cleft bone graft before placement of endosseous implant to replace the missing maxillary lateral incisor?

    A. 4 weeks
    B. 8 months
    C. 4 months
    D. 1 year
    E. 2 years
  22. A child with a bilateral cleft lip. This is classified as what class?
    A. Class I
    B. Class II
    C. Class III
    D. Class IV
    E. There is no classification for bilateral cleft lip
  23. A 3-year-old male presents with Stickler syndrome. He have the following abnormalities: cleft palate, posterior displacement of her tongue and mandibular micrognathia. This triad of anomalies is well recognized and is seen isolated and in association with other syndromes. This triad of anomalies commonly known as?
    A. Klinefelter sequence
    B. Apert sequence
    C. Pierre Robin sequence
    D. Gorlin sequence
    E. Gardner sequence
  24. Patients with Cleft palate are always evaluated for:
    A. Stickler syndrome
    B. Seckel syndrome
    C. Streiff syndrome
    D. Crouzon syndrome
  25. In Kernahan striped Y Classification, No. 5 and 2 denotes
    A. Lip
    B. Hard palate anterior to incisive foramen
    C. Alveolus
    D. Hard palate posterior to incisive foramen
  26. Millard rule of over 10, in 1967 for cleft lip surgery includes all of the following except
    A. Weight >10 pounds
    B. Hemoglobin >10 g%
    C. Age >10 weeks
    D. Total WBC count 10,000/mm3
  27. Rule of 10, recommended by Wilhelmsen and Musgrave (1966) includes all of the following except
    A. 10 pounds weight
    B. Total WBC count 10,000/mm3
    C. Hemoglobin 10 g%
    D. Age >10 weeks
  28. Statement A – Unilateral clefts are more common than bilateral clefts.
    Statement B – Cleft palate is more often associated with bilateral cleft lip than unilateral cleft.

    A. Both the statements are true
    B. Both the statements are false
    C. Statement A is true and Statement B is false
    D. Statement A is false and Statement B is true
  29. In Millard’s classification, No. 3 and 7 represents
    A. Hard palate
    B. Soft palate
    C. Alveolus
    D. Nasal floor
  30. American cleft palate association classification (Internationally approved) was established in the year
    A. 1962
    B. 1931
    C. 1958
    D. 1987
  31. In Veau’s classification, cleft of soft palate only falls under?
    A. Class 1
    B. Class 2
    C. Class 3
    D. Class 4
  32. What is the effect of glucocorticoids on palatal growth?
    A. It inhibits the growth of palatal mesenchyme
    B. It potentiates the growth of palatal mesenchyme
    C. Alters the terminal differentiation of medial palatal epithelial cells
    D. It has no action of palatal growth
  33. Risk of the second child being affected with cleft lip/palate when either one of the parent has cleft palate defect is
    A. 5%
    B. 10%
    C. 25%
    D. 30%
  34. Secondary alveolar bone grafting for cleft palate is usually done by
    A. 3–5 years of age
    B. 9–12 years of age
    C. 6–7 years of age
    D. 7–10 years of age
  35. Conventional orthodontic treatment for cleft palate patients is done by
    A. 10 years of age
    B. 15 years of age
    C. 18 years of age
    D. 3 years after the cleft palate surgery
  36. All of the following are features of unoperated cleft subjects except
    A. Tendency for normal maxillary development
    B. Smaller sized mandible than noncleft patients
    C. Maxilla is placed posteriorly compared to noncleft patients
    D. Supernumerary teeth
  37. The clefts of the lip and alveolus may have bands of soft tissue bridging across the two sides called
    A. Simonart’s bands
    B. Bands of Büngner
    C. Both of the above
    D. None of the above
  38. Fusion of palatal shelves begins at:
    A. 8th week
    B. 9th week
    C. 10th week
    D. 7th week
  39. Primary ABG is usually done between the
    A. First few days of life to 2.5 years age
    B. At birth
    C. 3–6 years of age
    D. 5–8 years of age
  40. Early secondary alveolar bone grafting is done between
    A. 2 and 5 years old
    B. 5 and 7 years old
    C. 8 and 10 years old
    D. Any time after cleft palate repair
  41. Late alveolar bone grafting is done:
    A. After 13 years of age
    B. After 8 years of age
    C. After 16 years of age
    D. After 10 years of age
  42. Cleft lip and palate patient often requires expansion. Appliance of choice in such cases is
    A. Hyrax appliance
    B. Hass appliance
    C. Cap splint type of expansion appliance
    D. SARPE
  43. Ultrasound images of clefts of the lip can be visualized as early as :
    A. 8 weeks
    B.12 weeks
    C. 16 weeks
    D. 20 weeks
  44. With respect to repair of cleft palate, the soft palate is first repaired, ideal time for which is?
    A. 12 months
    B. 9 months
    C. 6 months
    D. 3 months
  45. Which is more common?
    A. Left sided unilateral cleft
    B. Left and right unilateral are equal
    C. Right sided unilateral cleft
    D. Bilateral clefts
  46. Hereditary transformation of cleft is through:
    A. Male, sex linked dominated gene
    B. Male, sex linked recessive gene
    C. Female, sex linked recessive gene
    D. Female, sex linked dominated gene
  47. Environmental factors influencing incidence of cleft lip and palate during pregnancy are:
    A. Viral infections
    B. Exposure to radiation
    C. Anaemia and anorexia
    D. All of the above
  48. Consanguineous marriages are believed to have:
    A. Significant influence on clefts
    B. Not any influencing change
    C. A chance of defective zygote
    D. Very less effect on clefts
  49. The embryologic development of face in:
    A. 4th and 8th weeks of gestation
    B. 6th and 10th weeks of gestation
    C. 10th and 12th weeks of gestation
    D. 8th and 12th weeks of gestation
  50. Mandible and Lower lip develop from:
    A. Mandibular arch
    B. Maxillary arch
    C. Stomodeum
    D. Ectodermal plates
  51. Which are derived from maxillary process:
    A. Cheek and maxilla
    B. Zygoma and secondary palate
    C. Both of the above
    D. None of the above
  52. The main problem in cleft lip and palate is:
    A. Failure of lateral nasal process to make contact with median nasal process
    B. Formation of secondary palate
    C. Growth of nasal septum
    D. None of the above
  53. The Median nasal processes form:
    A. Middle portion of nose
    B. Middle portion of upper lip and premaxilla
    C. Entire primary palate
    D. All of the above
  54. The Lateral nasal processes forms:
    A. Nasal septum
    B. Ala of nose
    C. Premaxilla
    D. All of the above
  55. In Veau’s classification, “Group I” is:
    A. Prealveolar clefts
    B. Postalveolar clefts
    C. Complete alveolar clefts
    D. None of the above
  56. In Veau’s classification, The complete bilateral alveolar cleft is group:
    A. I
    B. II
    C. III
    D. IV
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